You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following statistics is used by countries to compare the success of their health care systems?
A. Attack rate
B. Infant mortality rate
C. Proportionate mortality ratio
D. Cause-specific mortality rate
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Infant mortality rate
The correct answer is B: Infant mortality rate. This statistic is used to compare the success of health care systems as it reflects the number of deaths of infants under one year old per 1,000 live births. A lower infant mortality rate indicates better access to healthcare and overall health outcomes for both mothers and infants.
A: Attack rate is used to measure the frequency of new cases of a disease in a population during a specific period, not directly related to health care system comparison.
C: Proportionate mortality ratio compares the proportion of deaths from a specific cause to all deaths, not specifically related to health care system success comparison.
D: Cause-specific mortality rate measures the number of deaths from a specific cause per population, not directly related to the overall success of health care systems.
Question 2
A nurse is setting up and assisting in a sterile surgical procedure. According to the principles of surgical asepsis, the nurse understands that which of these statements is correct?
A. The edges of a sterile field are also considered to be sterile.
B. The tray is considered to be unsterile if a blood-soaked gauze from the patient is placed back onto the tray.
C. The skin must be sterile prior to the start of the procedure.
D. The surgeon holds a surgical instrument out of view of the surgical field and below waist level, but does not touch anyone or anything. This instrument is still considered sterile and may be used.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The tray is considered to be unsterile if a blood-soaked gauze from the patient is placed back onto the tray.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. The tray is considered unsterile if a blood-soaked gauze from the patient is placed back onto it.
2. This action contaminates the tray, breaking the sterile field integrity.
3. Maintaining sterile technique is crucial to prevent infections during surgery.
4. Any breach in sterility increases the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms.
5. Therefore, ensuring that contaminated items are not placed back on the sterile field is essential.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as only the center of a sterile field is considered sterile, not the edges.
- Choice C is incorrect as the skin cannot be made completely sterile, but it should be cleaned and disinfected.
- Choice D is incorrect as any instrument that is held out of view should not be considered sterile due to potential contamination risks.
Question 3
A client who decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries is an example of what principle?
A. Fidelity
B. Autonomy
C. Justice
D. Non-maleficence
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Autonomy
The correct answer is B: Autonomy. Autonomy in healthcare refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own care, even if those decisions may not align with healthcare providers' recommendations. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries demonstrates his autonomy in making choices about his own health. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to the concept of keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment in healthcare, which is not the primary principle at play when a patient exercises autonomy. Choice D, Non-maleficence, relates to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not directly relevant to the client's decision to refuse surgery.
Question 4
Contemporary nursing requires that the nurse possess knowledge, skills and attitudes for a variety of professional roles and responsibilities. Examples include:
A. Increased emphasis on health promotion and illness prevention
B. Providing bedside care
C. Following physician orders
D. Autonomy and accountability
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Autonomy and accountability
Contemporary nursing demands autonomy and accountability nurses independently make decisions within their scope and take responsibility for outcomes, reflecting roles like educator, advocate, and clinician. This aligns with evolving healthcare, where nurses lead initiatives (e.g., patient education) and answer for care quality. Health promotion and illness prevention are key foci but specific tasks, not broad role examples. Providing bedside care is traditional, not fully capturing modern diversity (e.g., research, management). Following physician orders reflects dependence, not the autonomy defining today's practice. Autonomy and accountability encompass the knowledge (clinical expertise), skills (critical thinking), and attitudes (responsibility) needed for multifaceted roles, making this the best fit for contemporary nursing's scope.
Question 5
Sleep disorders that are characterized by abnormal behavioral or physical events during sleep are called:
A. insomnia.
B. dyssomnias.
C. hypersomnia.
D. parasomnias.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — parasomnias.
The correct answer is D: parasomnias. Parasomnias are sleep disorders involving abnormal behaviors or physical events during sleep, such as sleepwalking or night terrors. This is the correct choice because it specifically addresses the description provided in the question.
A: Insomnia is characterized by difficulty falling or staying asleep, not abnormal behaviors during sleep.
B: Dyssomnias are a broad category of sleep disorders affecting the timing, quality, or amount of sleep, not necessarily involving abnormal behaviors during sleep.
C: Hypersomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, not abnormal behaviors during sleep.
In summary, the other choices do not align with the description of sleep disorders involving abnormal behavioral or physical events during sleep, making D the correct answer.
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Question 6
The nurse is conducting an interview with a woman who has recently learned that she is pregnant and who has come to the clinic today to begin prenatal care. The woman states that she and her husband are excited about the pregnancy but have a few questions. She looks nervously at her hands during the interview and sighs loudly. Considering the concept of communication, which statement does the nurse know to be most accurate? The woman is:
A. Excited about her pregnancy but nervous about the labor.
B. Exhibiting verbal and nonverbal behaviors that do not match.
C. Excited about her pregnancy, but her husband is not and this is upsetting to her.
D. Not excited about her pregnancy but believes the nurse will negatively respond to her if she states this.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the woman's verbal statement ("excited about the pregnancy") does not align with her nonverbal behaviors (looking nervously at her hands, sighing loudly). This inconsistency between verbal and nonverbal communication is a key indicator of potential underlying concerns or emotions that the woman may not be openly expressing.
Option A can be ruled out because there is no direct indication of nervousness about labor. Option C is incorrect as there is no mention of the husband's feelings in the scenario. Option D is not supported by the information provided; the woman did not express fear of the nurse's response but rather exhibits nonverbal cues that may indicate hidden concerns or anxieties. Thus, option B is the most accurate choice based on the observed mismatch between verbal and nonverbal behaviors.
When providing holistic care to a client, the nurse recognizes that which behaviors are necessary?
A. Understand and respect each person's definition of health
B. Understand and respect each person's responses to illness
C. Focus on a standard definition of health and beliefs
D. Instruct the client that health is an inactive process
Correct answer:
Holistic care in nursing embraces the whole person mind, body, spirit requiring tailored approaches. Understanding and respecting each person's definition of health acknowledges their unique values, like viewing wellness as independence or spiritual peace, shaping care plans. Respecting responses to illness honors individual coping like stoicism or seeking support fostering trust. A standard health definition ignores this diversity, risking alienation, while calling health inactive contradicts its dynamic nature people actively pursue it. Holistic nursing uses models like the wellness wheel to integrate dimensions, ensuring care fits the client, not a mold. This flexibility enhances engagement, as when a nurse adapts teaching for a client valuing herbal remedies, strengthening outcomes by aligning with personal beliefs and experiences.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has poor tissue perfusion as the result of hypertension. When the patient asks what he should eat for breakfast, what should the nurse recommend?
A. A bowl of cereal with whole milk and a banana
B. A cup of nonfat yogurt with granola, and a handful of dried apricots
C. Whole wheat toast with butter, a side of cottage cheese
D. Omelet with sausage, cheese, and onions
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: A cup of nonfat yogurt with granola, and a handful of dried apricots. This choice is the best option because it provides a balance of nutrients that can support the patient's poor tissue perfusion due to hypertension. Nonfat yogurt is low in saturated fats, granola offers fiber and nutrients, and dried apricots provide potassium which is beneficial for managing blood pressure.
Choice A is incorrect because whole milk and a banana can be high in saturated fats and sugars, which can be detrimental to someone with hypertension. Choice C is also not ideal as butter and cottage cheese can be high in saturated fats and sodium, which can worsen hypertension. Choice D is the least suitable option as sausage, cheese, and onions are high in saturated fats and sodium, which can negatively impact blood pressure levels.
A patient who can barely ambulate with a walker at home is having a left total knee replacement. What is the most appropriate category for this surgery?
A. Urgent
B. Restorative
C. Simple
D. Palliative
Correct answer:
A total knee replacement for a patient with limited mobility is classified as restorative surgery because it aims to restore function and improve quality of life by replacing a damaged joint. Urgent surgery addresses immediate threats, like a ruptured aneurysm, not applicable here. Simple surgery is not a standard classification and suggests minimal complexity, which doesn't fit a major procedure like this. Palliative surgery relieves symptoms without curing, unlike this surgery's goal of functional restoration. The rationale hinges on the restorative intent: the procedure corrects a degenerative condition (e.g., osteoarthritis), enabling ambulation and reducing disability. This aligns with nursing's focus on enhancing patient independence, distinguishing it from curative (disease eradication) or palliative (symptom relief) categories.
The nurse is helping another nurse to take a blood pressure reading on a patient's thigh. Which action is correct regarding thigh pressure?
A. Either the popliteal or femoral vessels should be auscultated to obtain a thigh pressure.
B. The best position to measure thigh pressure is the supine position with the knee slightly bent.
C. If the blood pressure in the arm is high in an adolescent, then it should be compared with thigh pressure.
D. The thigh pressure is lower than the pressure in the arm, which is attributable to the distance away from the heart and the size of the popliteal vessels.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C. When the blood pressure in the arm is high in an adolescent, it should be compared with thigh pressure. This is because in certain conditions like coarctation of the aorta, there can be a significant difference in blood pressure between the arms and thighs. By comparing arm and thigh pressures, the nurse can assess for potential underlying cardiovascular issues.
A: Auscultating the popliteal or femoral vessels is not necessary for obtaining thigh pressure as the correct method is comparing arm and thigh pressures.
B: The position for measuring thigh pressure is not specified, and the focus should be on comparing arm and thigh pressures.
D: The difference in pressure between the arm and thigh is not solely due to distance from the heart and vessel size; it can be indicative of cardiovascular abnormalities.
In providing care to a patient admitted with acute asthma exacerbation, the nurse prepares which 'rescue' medication for administration first?
A. Inhaled anti-inflammatories.
B. Mucolytics.
C. Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists.
D. Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists. In acute asthma exacerbation, rapid bronchodilation is crucial for symptom relief. Short-acting beta2-agonists like albuterol act quickly to dilate the airways, providing immediate relief of bronchospasm and improving airflow. This medication is the first-line treatment for acute asthma attacks as it targets the underlying issue of bronchoconstriction.
A: Inhaled anti-inflammatories, like corticosteroids, are essential for long-term control of asthma but are not used as rescue medications for acute exacerbations.
B: Mucolytics help in thinning mucus but do not address the bronchoconstriction seen in acute asthma exacerbations.
C: Long-acting beta2-agonists are used for maintenance therapy in asthma management and are not intended for quick relief during acute attacks.
Before implantation, the blastocyst obtains its nutrition from the uterine endometrial secretions. How does the blastocyst obtain nutrition during the first week after implantation?
A. It continues to derive nutrition from endometrial secretions
B. The cells of the blastocyst contain stored nutrients that are metabolized for nutritional support
C. The placenta provides nutrition derived from maternal blood
D. The trophoblast cells digest the nutrient-rich endometrial cells and then absorb their contents for use by the blastocyst
Correct answer:
Step 1: The trophoblast cells of the blastocyst invade the endometrial lining during implantation.
Step 2: The trophoblast cells secrete enzymes to digest the nutrient-rich endometrial cells.
Step 3: The digested nutrients are absorbed by the trophoblast cells.
Step 4: These nutrients are then utilized by the blastocyst for its growth and development.
Step 5: This process ensures that the blastocyst receives the necessary nutrition for the first week after implantation.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. Endometrial secretions are no longer the source of nutrition after implantation.
B: Incorrect. While the blastocyst may contain some stored nutrients, they are not sufficient for the first week post-implantation.
C: Incorrect. The placenta is not fully functional until later in pregnancy, so it does not provide nutrition in the first week.
The nurse is demonstrating the Z-track injection technique to a nursing student on a patient who is receiving iron dextran. Which statement by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A. This is necessary to prevent staining of the patient's skin.
B. This technique allows slower, more sustained absorption.
C. You may use the deltoid site when using this method.
D. I should use a 23-gauge needle to minimize discomfort with this method.
Correct answer:
The Z-track technique is used for intramuscular injections of irritating medications like iron dextran to prevent leakage into subcutaneous tissue and skin staining. Option A is correct because displacing the skin laterally before injection seals the drug in the muscle, avoiding discoloration from iron. Option B is incorrect as Z-track doesn't alter absorption rate, which depends on the drug's formulation. Option C is wrong because the deltoid isn't preferred for iron dextran; the ventrogluteal site is standard due to muscle mass and safety. Option D is inaccurate as a 23-gauge needle may be too small for viscous drugs like iron, typically requiring a larger bore. The student's statement in A shows understanding of the technique's purpose, aligning with its clinical use to minimize adverse effects and ensure patient comfort and safety.
What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a client with low back pain who is taking cyclobenzaprine to control muscle spasms?
A. Take this medication with or without food
B. Avoid using heat or ice on injured muscles while taking this medication
C. Use cold and allergy medications only as directed by a healthcare provider
D. Discontinue all nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: 'Use cold and allergy medications only as directed by a healthcare provider.' It is essential to inform the client not to self-medicate with cold and allergy medications or make changes without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because cyclobenzaprine can be taken with or without food, so there is no specific requirement to take it on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect because using heat or ice on injured muscles while taking cyclobenzaprine is generally safe and can help with symptom management. Choice D is also incorrect because discontinuing nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider, but it is not a direct concern related to taking cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms.
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?
A. Skin integrity
B. Blood pressure
C. Arterial blood gas levels
D. Fluid balance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Arterial blood gas levels. Monitoring arterial blood gas levels is crucial in assessing the client's oxygenation and ventilation status, which are directly affected by mechanical ventilation. It provides important information about the client's acid-base balance and respiratory function. This assessment helps the nurse make timely interventions to optimize ventilation support.
Choice A: Skin integrity is important but not the priority when the client's respiratory status is unstable.
Choice B: Blood pressure is important but not as critical as assessing oxygenation and ventilation status in a client on mechanical ventilation.
Choice D: Fluid balance is important, but monitoring arterial blood gas levels takes precedence in this scenario as it directly reflects the effectiveness of mechanical ventilation.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 84 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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Keep going past these 15 questions
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