You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A hospital recently learned that their scorecard did not meet the national benchmark for patient satisfaction and brought in a professional change agent to determine what their issues were and how they could improve their score. The agent collected data and recommended that nurses participate in interdisciplinary walking rounds and allow the patient and family to be participants. Nurses now round every shift and perform 'huddles to update the team' as needed throughout the shift as part of best practices. Random visits are made to nursing units to ensure all nurses are participating and patients are interviewed for their involvement. These practices are associated with which stage of Lewin's change process?
A. Unfreeze
B. Refreeze
C. Resistance
D. Moving
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Refreeze
The correct answer is B: Refreeze. In Lewin's change management model, the stages are Unfreeze, Moving, and Refreeze. In this scenario, the hospital has already gone through the Unfreeze stage by realizing the need for change and bringing in a change agent. The actions recommended by the agent, such as implementing interdisciplinary walking rounds, involving patients and families, conducting huddles, and monitoring participation, are part of the Moving stage where the actual change initiatives are implemented. The final stage, Refreeze, involves solidifying the changes and making them a part of the organization's culture. In this case, the practices being implemented, such as rounding every shift, performing huddles, and ensuring participation, are aimed at stabilizing and institutionalizing the changes, aligning with the Refreeze stage.
Question 2
A nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following signs should the nurse monitor for in this patient?
A. Extreme weight gain and bloating.
B. Excessive exercise and compulsive eating.
C. Severe weight loss and restriction of food intake.
D. Binge eating followed by purging behaviors.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Severe weight loss and restriction of food intake.
The correct answer is C: Severe weight loss and restriction of food intake. In anorexia nervosa, patients typically exhibit extreme fear of gaining weight, leading to severe restriction of food intake resulting in significant weight loss. Monitoring for this sign is crucial to assess the severity of the disorder and plan appropriate interventions.
Incorrect choices:
A: Extreme weight gain and bloating - This is not indicative of anorexia nervosa as patients with this disorder typically experience significant weight loss.
B: Excessive exercise and compulsive eating - While excessive exercise can be a symptom of anorexia nervosa, compulsive eating is more commonly associated with binge eating disorder.
D: Binge eating followed by purging behaviors - This pattern of behavior is characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.
Question 3
A 30 year old male is brought to the hospital after falling 6 meters. Inspection reveals an obvious flail chest on the right. The patient is tachypnei Breath sounds are present and symmetrical. There is no significant hyperresonance or dullness. Arterial blood gas obtained while the patient receives oxygen by face mask are: PaO2 of 45mmHg (6Kpa), PaCO2 of 28mmHg (3,7 Kpa) and pH of 7.47. The component of injury that most likely responsible for abnormalities in this patient's blood gas is:
A. Hypoventilation
B. Pulmonary contusion
C. Hypovolemia
D. Small pneumothorax
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Pulmonary contusion
The correct answer is B: Pulmonary contusion.
Rationale:
1. The patient has a flail chest on the right side, indicating chest wall trauma.
2. Tachypnea suggests respiratory distress to compensate for impaired gas exchange.
3. The ABG shows a low PaO2 (hypoxemia), low PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis), and high pH (alkalosis), consistent with pulmonary contusion causing ventilation-perfusion mismatch and hypoxemia.
4. Hypoventilation (choice A) would typically show high PaCO2 and low pH.
5. Hypovolemia (choice C) would present with different ABG findings, such as low pH and high bicarbonate.
6. A small pneumothorax (choice D) would not cause such significant gas exchange abnormalities.
Summary:
Pulmonary contusion is the most likely cause as it fits with the clinical presentation and ABG findings, while the other choices do not
Question 4
The nurse is assessing the factors contributing to the well-being of a newly admitted client. Which of the following would the nurse identify as having a positive impact on the individual's mental health?
A. Not needing others for companionship
B. The ability to effectively manage stress
C. A family history of mental illness
D. Striving for total self-reliance
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The ability to effectively manage stress
Individual factors influencing mental health include biologic makeup, autonomy, independence, self-esteem, capacity for growth, vitality, ability to find meaning in life, emotional resilience or hardiness, sense of belonging, reality orientation, and coping or stress management abilities. Interpersonal factors such as intimacy and a balance of separateness and connectedness are both needed for good mental health, and therefore a healthy person would need others for companionship. A family history of mental illness could relate to the biologic makeup of an individual, which may have a negative impact on an individual's mental health, as well as a negative impact on an individual's interpersonal and social/cultural factors of health. Total self-reliance is not possible, and a positive social/cultural factor is access to adequate resources.
Question 5
A patient is having pulmonary-function studies performed. The patient performs a spirometry test, revealing an FEV1/FVC ratio of 60%. How should the nurse interpret this assessment finding?
A. Strong exercise tolerance
B. Exhalation volume is normal
C. Respiratory infection
D. Obstructive lung disease
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Obstructive lung disease
An FEV1/FVC ratio of 60% below the normal threshold of 70% indicates obstructive lung disease on spirometry, reflecting reduced airflow from narrowed airways, as in COPD or asthma. FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second) measures air expelled quickly, while FVC (forced vital capacity) is total air exhaled; a low ratio shows expiration is disproportionately impaired, typical of obstruction. Strong exercise tolerance contradicts this, requiring unimpeded airflow. Exhalation volume isn't ‘normal' the ratio signals restriction in speed, not capacity alone. Respiratory infection may worsen obstruction but isn't diagnosed by spirometry alone. The nurse's interpretation guides further assessment (e.g., bronchodilator response) and management (e.g., inhalers), aligning with pulmonary function standards for diagnosing obstructive pathology.
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Question 6
Mr. Vasquez 56-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettes per day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following conditions?
A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B. Asthma
C. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
D. Emphysema
Correct answer:
Step 1: Mr. Vasquez has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, which is a common symptom of chronic bronchitis.
Step 2: Peripheral edema and cyanotic nail beds indicate poor oxygenation, a characteristic of chronic bronchitis.
Step 3: Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation of the bronchial tubes, leading to excessive mucus production.
Step 4: Chronic bronchitis is often caused by long-term smoking, which Mr. Vasquez has a 40-year history of.
Step 5: Therefore, the most likely condition Mr. Vasquez has is chronic obstructive bronchitis (Choice C).
Summary:
A: ARDS is an acute condition usually caused by severe injury or illness, not chronic smoking.
B: Asthma typically presents with wheezing and shortness of breath, not chronic cough with sputum.
D: Emphysema is characterized by damage to the air sacs in the lungs
In performing a voice test to assess hearing, which of these actions would the nurse perform?
A. Shield the lips so that the sound is muffled.
B. Whisper a set of random numbers and letters, and then ask the patient to repeat them.
C. Ask the patient to place his finger in his ear to occlude outside noise.
D. Stand approximately 4 feet away to ensure that the patient can really hear at this distance.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because whispering random numbers and letters and asking the patient to repeat them is a common method used in voice tests to assess hearing ability. This test evaluates both the patient's ability to hear and understand speech at a normal conversation level. Whispering ensures that the patient relies solely on their auditory ability without any visual cues.
A: Shielding the lips would hinder the patient's ability to hear the nurse clearly, making it an inappropriate action for a voice test.
C: Asking the patient to occlude outside noise by placing a finger in the ear is not part of a standard voice test procedure and does not assess hearing directly.
D: Standing 4 feet away doesn't provide a standardized or controlled environment for a voice test and may not accurately evaluate the patient's hearing ability.
A client has expressed an openness to practicing meditation in an effort to relieve anxiety and promote wellness. When providing education about meditation, the nurse will make which statement(s) to the client?
A. If possible, choose a consistent place where you will do your meditation.'
B. Turn off or silent electronic devices while you're meditating.'
C. Be intentional about when you schedule your meditation so that you develop a routine.'
D. Whenever possible, lie down while you meditate.'
Correct answer:
Educating a client on meditation for anxiety relief involves practical, evidence-supported advice to ensure success and wellness. Suggesting a consistent place creates a calm, familiar setting, enhancing focus and relaxation, key to reducing stress. Silencing devices eliminates distractions, fostering mindfulness, a core meditation benefit shown to lower cortisol levels. Scheduling intentionally builds a routine, reinforcing habit formation studies link regularity to sustained anxiety reduction. Advising intentional breathing quiets the mind, amplifying calm, unlike lying down, which risks sleep over meditation's goal of alert relaxation. These tips align with nursing's wellness promotion, empowering the client with actionable steps to manage anxiety effectively, integrating mind-body balance into daily life for lasting health benefits.
The nurse is planning care for a client with a chronic illness. Which intervention reflects tertiary prevention?
A. Screening the client for depression
B. Teaching the client strategies for living with the illness
C. Encouraging the client to receive an annual flu vaccine
D. Educating the client about preventing transmission of illness
Correct answer:
Tertiary prevention optimizes life with a chronic illness, reducing its impact post-diagnosis. Teaching strategies for living with it like pacing activities for arthritis helps the client adapt, minimizing disability and enhancing function, a nursing priority. Screening for depression is secondary, detecting new issues, not managing the existing one. An annual flu vaccine is primary, preventing unrelated illness, not addressing the chronic condition's effects. Educating about transmission fits infectious cases, not all chronic ones. This intervention tailored coping reflects nursing's role in rehabilitation, ensuring clients thrive despite limits. For instance, teaching a heart failure client fluid management cuts readmissions, aligning with tertiary care's focus on sustaining quality of life through practical, illness-specific support.
A patient has a history of drug use and is screened for hepatitis B during the first trimester. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Practice respiratory isolation.
B. Plan for retesting during the third trimester.
C. Discuss the recommendation to bottle feed her baby.
D. Anticipate administering the vaccination for hepatitis B as soon as possible.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Plan for retesting during the third trimester. This is because screening for hepatitis B in the first trimester may not accurately reflect the patient's current status. Retesting in the third trimester ensures an updated result closer to delivery, allowing for appropriate interventions if needed.
A: Practice respiratory isolation is incorrect because hepatitis B is transmitted through blood and bodily fluids, not through respiratory droplets.
C: Discuss the recommendation to bottle feed her baby is incorrect as breastfeeding is not contraindicated in mothers with hepatitis B.
D: Anticipate administering the vaccination for hepatitis B as soon as possible is incorrect as vaccination is not the immediate next step after screening; retesting and further evaluation are necessary before deciding on vaccination.
A nursing assistant's care for a person with a developmental disability includes
A. Offering praise only following a big accomplishment
B. Actively discouraging social interaction
C. Breaking tasks into small steps
D. Limiting conversation to residents who can verbalize
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Breaking tasks into small steps. This approach is essential when caring for individuals with developmental disabilities to facilitate understanding and successful completion of tasks. Breaking tasks into small steps helps individuals focus, reduces overwhelm, and promotes independence.
A: Offering praise only following a big accomplishment is incorrect as continuous positive reinforcement is important in building self-esteem and motivation.
B: Actively discouraging social interaction is incorrect as social interaction is crucial for emotional well-being and overall development.
D: Limiting conversation to residents who can verbalize is incorrect as communication can take various forms, and it is important to support and encourage communication in all individuals, regardless of their verbal abilities.
Which of the following is a function of the musculoskeletal system?
A. Stores vitamin D
B. Supplies oxygen to cells
C. Stores calcium and phosphorous
D. Transports antibodies to cells
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Stores calcium and phosphorus. The musculoskeletal system plays a crucial role in storing minerals like calcium and phosphorus, which are essential for bone health and muscle function. Bones act as a reservoir for these minerals, releasing them when needed for various bodily functions. This function helps maintain the body's mineral balance and supports overall skeletal strength.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Storing vitamin D is primarily done by adipose tissue and the liver, not the musculoskeletal system.
B: Supplying oxygen to cells is the role of the respiratory and circulatory systems, not the musculoskeletal system.
D: Transporting antibodies to cells is the function of the immune system, involving the lymphatic system and blood circulation, not the musculoskeletal system.
A patient nearing the end of life requests that he be given no food or fluids. The physician orders the insertion of a nasogastric tube to feed the patient. What situation does this create for the nurse providing care?
A. nurse must follow the physician's orders
B. an inability to provide care for the patient
C. an ethical dilemma about inconsistent courses of action
D. a barrier to establishing an effective nurse-patient relationship
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it highlights the ethical dilemma that arises from conflicting principles of patient autonomy and beneficence. By respecting the patient's wish to refuse food and fluids, the nurse would be supporting autonomy, but by following the physician's order to insert a feeding tube, the nurse would be prioritizing beneficence. This creates a moral distress for the nurse, as they are torn between two valid but conflicting courses of action.
A: Following physician's orders is important, but in this case, it conflicts with the patient's autonomy.
B: This choice is too extreme and does not address the ethical dilemma at hand.
D: While inserting a feeding tube may affect the nurse-patient relationship, the primary issue is the ethical conflict between respecting the patient's wishes and following medical orders.
The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side
B. Ask the UAP to leave the room and assess the client's body for bruising
C. Carefully observe the interaction between the client and family members
D. Instruct the UAP to protect the client's left side when transferring to a chair
Correct answer:
The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.
The nurse is providing care for a client with a wound infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Contact precautions
D. Standard precautions
Correct answer:
Contact precautions are necessary when caring for a client with a wound infection to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve practices such as wearing gloves and gowns, and ensuring proper hand hygiene. Airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets larger than 5 microns, such as influenza. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infection and include practices like hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and safe injection practices. In this case, since the client has a wound infection, the nurse should focus on implementing contact precautions to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 83 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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