You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
An individual that is incubating an infectious disease and is capable of spreading it during incubation period is known as
A. Convalescent carrier
B. Precocious carrier
C. Contact carrier
D. Healthy carrier
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Healthy carrier
A healthy carrier is someone who harbors and can transmit an infectious agent without showing symptoms, including during the incubation period before illness manifests. 'Healthy carrier,' is correct because it fits this description, as seen with typhoid carriers like Mary Mallon, who spread disease unknowingly. 'Convalescent carrier,' refers to someone recovering from illness who still sheds pathogens, not during incubation. 'Precocious carrier,' is not a standard term in epidemiology. 'Contact carrier,' is also not recognized; it might imply transmission via contact but lacks specificity to incubation. The healthy carrier's asymptomatic yet infectious state during incubation aligns with the question, supported by public health definitions from the CDC, distinguishing D as the accurate answer over less applicable or nonexistent terms.
Question 2
An important concept taught by the nurse when providing medication teaching is the need to provide a complete list of medications taken to health care providers to avoid what?
A. Spending large amounts of money on medications
B. Allergic reactions to medications
C. Drug-drug interactions
D. Critical concentrations of medications in the body
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Drug-drug interactions
It is important that all health care providers have a complete list of the patients medications to avoid drug-drug interactions caused by one provider ordering a medication, unaware of another medication the patient is taking that could interact with the new prescription. Using the same pharmacist for all prescriptions will also help to prevent this from happening. Informing the provider of all medications taken will not reduce costs of medications, which is best accomplished by requesting generic medications. Allergies should be disclosed to all health care providers as well, but this is not why it is important to provide a complete list of medications taken. Critical concentrations are desirable because that is the amount of drug needed to cause a therapeutic effect, or, in other words, to have the effect the drug is prescribed for.
Question 3
After assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa, a nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis: imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to refusal to eat as evidenced by being 25% below body weight for height. The expected outcome should be listed as:
A. Patient will identify cognitive distortions about food, weight, and body shape.'
B. Patient will exhibit fewer signs of malnutrition within 2 weeks of hospitalization.'
C. Patient will be able to describe both the physical and emotional complications of the eating disorder.'
D. Patient will restore healthy eating patterns and normalize physiological parameters related to weight and nutrition.'
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Patient will restore healthy eating patterns and normalize physiological parameters related to weight and nutrition.'
The correct answer is D because the expected outcome for a patient with imbalanced nutrition due to anorexia nervosa should focus on restoring healthy eating patterns and normalizing physiological parameters related to weight and nutrition. This outcome directly addresses the underlying issue of inadequate nutrition intake and helps the patient achieve a healthier state.
A: While identifying cognitive distortions is important for addressing the psychological aspects of anorexia nervosa, it does not directly address the patient's nutritional needs.
B: Exhibiting fewer signs of malnutrition is a vague outcome and does not specify how the patient will achieve this improvement.
C: Describing physical and emotional complications is informative but does not address the primary goal of improving nutrition intake and weight restoration.
Question 4
Patients on an inpatient psychiatric unit can earn off-unit privileges for daily use of socially appropriate behavior. This is an example of employing which concept of behavior modification?
A. Systematic desensitization
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Classical conditioning
D. Operant conditioning
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Operant conditioning
The theory of operant conditioning says people learn their behavior from their history or past experiences, particularly those experiences that were repeatedly reinforced. Behavior that is rewarded with reinforcers tends to recur. Positive reinforcers that follow a behavior increase the likelihood that the behavior will recur. In classical conditioning, behavior can be changed through conditioning with external or environmental conditions or stimuli. Negative reinforcement involves removing a stimulus immediately after a behavior occurs so that the behavior is more likely to occur again. In systematic desensitization, the client learns and practices relaxation techniques to decrease and manage anxiety. He or she is then exposed to the least anxiety provoking situation and uses the relaxation techniques to manage the resulting anxiety.
Question 5
The nurse manager assesses that there is conflict between two of the charge nurses. The decision is made to postpone an intervention and allow the conflict to escalate. Why might the nurse manager make this decision
A. Allow sufficient time for the problem to spontaneously resolve
B. Motivate the participants to seek resolution
C. Give the nurse manager time to identify problem-solving strategies
D. Relieve the nurse manager of the time commitment necessary to intervene
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Motivate the participants to seek resolution
The correct answer is B because allowing the conflict to escalate can motivate the participants to seek resolution on their own. By postponing intervention, the nurse manager gives the charge nurses the opportunity to recognize the seriousness of the conflict and take proactive steps to resolve it. This approach promotes autonomy and encourages the individuals involved to take ownership of the situation, leading to a more sustainable and meaningful resolution.
Incorrect choices:
A: Allowing time for the problem to resolve on its own may not address the underlying issues causing the conflict.
C: Waiting to identify problem-solving strategies delays intervention and may allow the conflict to escalate further.
D: Avoiding intervention to save time is not an effective approach to managing conflict and may result in a lack of resolution.
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Question 6
An adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit because he experienced a sudden onset of sharp chest pain and shortness of breath earlier today. Following an emergent pulmonary angiogram, the client is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
A. Monitor signs of increased bleeding
B. Instruct on the use of incentive spirometry
C. Observe for confusion and restlessness
D. Administer intravenous opioids for severe pain
Correct answer:
In a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism, the most critical intervention is to monitor for signs of increased bleeding. Pulmonary embolism treatment often involves anticoagulation therapy, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding is essential to prevent complications. Instructing on the use of incentive spirometry can be beneficial for preventing pulmonary complications but is not as urgent as monitoring for bleeding. Observing for confusion and restlessness may indicate hypoxia but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario. Administering intravenous opioids for severe pain might be necessary but is not the priority compared to monitoring for bleeding, which is directly related to the treatment for pulmonary embolism.
A 60-year-old woman presents with a complaint of joint pain, particularly in the knees. She reports that the pain is worse with activity and improves with rest. She has a history of obesity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Psoriatic arthritis
Correct answer:
The most likely diagnosis for the 60-year-old woman with joint pain worsened by activity and improved with rest, along with a history of obesity, is osteoarthritis (OA). OA is the most common type of arthritis in older individuals, often affecting weight-bearing joints like the knees. The pain pattern described aligns with OA, as it typically worsens with activity due to the degeneration of cartilage and improves with rest. Rheumatoid arthritis (B) is less likely as it typically presents with symmetrical joint involvement and morning stiffness. Gout (C) is characterized by sudden, severe attacks of pain in joints due to the buildup of uric acid crystals and is less likely based on the provided information. Psoriatic arthritis (D) is associated with psoriasis skin lesions, which are not mentioned in the scenario, making it less likely.
A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson for evaluation of a collapsed breastbone that has been present for quite awhile. He has no symptoms but is embarrassed about his appearance.
A. Barrel chest
B. Funnel chest (pectus excavatum)
C. Pigeon chest (pectus carinatum)
D. Thoracic kyphoscoliosis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Funnel chest (pectus excavatum). Pectus excavatum is characterized by a depression or concave appearance of the breastbone (sternum). In this case, the 13-year-old grandson has a collapsed breastbone, which aligns with the description of pectus excavatum. This condition is often asymptomatic but can cause embarrassment due to the appearance.
Barrel chest (choice A) refers to an increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often seen in conditions like COPD, not related to a collapsed breastbone. Pigeon chest (choice C) is the opposite of pectus excavatum, where the sternum protrudes outward. Thoracic kyphoscoliosis (choice D) involves a combination of kyphosis (excessive outward curvature of the spine) and scoliosis (sideways curvature of the spine), not directly related to a collapsed breastbone.
A nurse researcher is examining the cause-and-effect relationship between the consumption of tap water containing minimal amounts of bleach, and the incidence of cancer in rats. The research is taking place in a laboratory setting. What type of quantitative research is being used based upon this description?
A. Descriptive research
B. Correlational research
C. Quasi-experimental research
D. Experimental research
Correct answer:
Experimental research, used here, tests cause-and-effect under controlled conditions, typically in labs. The nurse manipulates tap water with bleach (independent variable) to measure cancer incidence in rats (dependent variable), controlling factors like diet to isolate effects. Descriptive research observes phenomena like disease prevalence without manipulation. Correlational research examines variable relationships, like smoking and cancer rates, without causation. Quasi-experimental research tests cause-effect but lacks full control, often outside labs. Experimental design's rigor randomization, controls yields causal insights, like bleach's oncogenicity, advancing nursing's scientific base. This method's precision suits lab settings, offering clear, replicable evidence for health impacts, critical for informing practice or policy.
If a resident is difficult to understand, a nursing assistant should
A. Pretend to understand the resident even when she does not so the resident will not feel embarrassed
B. Restate what the resident is saying in her own words to find out if she has understood
C. Avoid communicating with the resident
D. Use cliches to make it easier for the resident to understand what is being said
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because restating what the resident is saying in the nursing assistant's own words helps clarify understanding and ensures effective communication. This technique allows the nursing assistant to confirm if they have comprehended the resident correctly and provides an opportunity for the resident to correct any misunderstandings. It demonstrates active listening and empathy towards the resident's communication challenges.
Choice A is incorrect as pretending to understand the resident may lead to miscommunication and hinder the resident's ability to express themselves. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding communication with the resident is not a solution to understanding difficulties. Choice D is incorrect as using cliches does not address the root of the communication issue and may further confuse the resident.
During the health history, a client shares that the family attends church every Sunday. Which function of the family does this represent?
A. Physical.
B. Economic.
C. Reproductive.
D. Socialization.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Socialization. Attending church every Sunday as a family reflects the socialization function of the family. Socialization involves teaching values, norms, and beliefs to children within a culture or society. By attending church together, the family is participating in a social activity that reinforces shared values and beliefs. This helps children learn about social behaviors and expectations within their community.
A: Physical - Attending church does not directly relate to physical functions of the family such as providing food, shelter, or healthcare.
B: Economic - Attending church is not primarily related to financial aspects or economic functions of the family.
C: Reproductive - Attending church does not pertain to the reproductive function of the family which involves procreation and child-rearing.
Four clients are receiving tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs). Which of these four clients should the nurse assess first?
A. Client with dry, itchy, peeling skin
B. Client with a serum calcium of $9.2 mg/dL
C. Client with a serum potassium of $2.8 mEq/L
D. Client with a weight gain of 0.5 pound (1.1 kg) in 1 day
Correct answer:
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) target cancer cell signaling pathways but can cause electrolyte imbalances, among other side effects. A serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L (normal 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) is critically low, risking cardiac arrhythmias or muscle dysfunction, making this client the priority for immediate assessment. Dry, itchy, peeling skin is a common TKI side effect, uncomfortable but not immediately life-threatening, warranting later attention for infection risk. A calcium level of 9.2 mg/dL is normal (8.5-10.2 mg/dL), requiring no urgent action. A 0.5-pound weight gain in a day is minor and less critical unless part of a pattern suggesting fluid retention. The nurse prioritizes the potassium imbalance due to its potential for rapid, severe consequences, reflecting oncology's emphasis on addressing physiological instability first.
A patient with many positive symptoms of schizophrenia, whose behavior is disorganized and who is highly anxious, tells the nurse in the psychiatric emergency department, 'You have got to help me. I do not know what is going on. I think someone is trying to wipe me out. I have to get a gun.' The patient, a college student, lives alone and has no family or support system in the immediate area. He has not left his room in 2 weeks, has not eaten in several days, and is unkempt. Of the available treatment settings, the nurse should recommend:
A. admission to an unlocked residential crisis unit.
B. inpatient hospitalization on a locked unit.
C. attending a day treatment program for 4 weeks.
D. admission to a partial hospital program.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: inpatient hospitalization on a locked unit. This option is the most appropriate because the patient is presenting with severe symptoms of schizophrenia, including paranoia, disorganized behavior, and potential harm to self or others by mentioning getting a gun. In this case, the patient requires a higher level of care and safety, which can only be provided in an inpatient hospital setting on a locked unit. Admission to an unlocked residential crisis unit (Choice A) may not provide the necessary level of supervision and security. Attending a day treatment program for 4 weeks (Choice C) may not be intensive enough to address the patient's current crisis. Admission to a partial hospital program (Choice D) also may not provide the required level of supervision and structure for a patient with such acute symptoms.
The best method to identify a Resident in a long term care facility is to:
A. Check the resident's name and room number on the assignment sheet carefully
B. Call the person by name
C. Have the person tell you their name
D. Check the laundry label on their shirt
Correct answer:
Accurate identification in long-term care is critical to prevent errors in care delivery, especially with residents who may have cognitive impairments or similar names. Checking the resident's name and room number on the assignment sheet provides a reliable, documented method tied to the facility's records, ensuring consistency and reducing mistakes. Calling the person by name assumes they respond correctly, which may not work with confusion or hearing issues. Having them state their name relies on their ability to communicate accurately, which isn't always possible. Checking a laundry label is informal and prone to errors (e.g., mixed-up clothing). The assignment sheet, often paired with an ID bracelet check, is the gold standard in healthcare settings for its precision and alignment with safety protocols, making it the best method.
What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?
A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
C. Verify tube placement every shift.
D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.
Correct answer:
Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 85 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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