LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 39

LPN exams · fundamentals

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 39

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A hospital has been the site of an increased incidence of hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). What is an important measure for the prevention of HAP?

  1. A. Administration of prophylactic antibiotics
  2. B. Administration of pneumococcal vaccine to vulnerable individuals
  3. C. Obtaining culture and sensitivity swabs from all newly admitted patients
  4. D. Administration of antiretroviral medications to patients over age 65
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Administration of pneumococcal vaccine to vulnerable individuals

Preventing hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP), a nosocomial infection occurring 48+ hours post-admission, relies on targeting vulnerable populations, making pneumococcal vaccination a key measure. This vaccine protects against Streptococcus pneumoniae, a leading HAP cause, reducing incidence in older adults or those with chronic illnesses, as supported by CDC guidelines for adults over 65 or with comorbidities. Prophylactic antibiotics aren't standard due to resistance risks and lack of evidence for broad prevention. Routine culture swabs on admission identify pathogens but don't prevent infection, serving more for treatment guidance. Antiretrovirals address HIV, not bacterial pneumonia, and aren't indicated here. Vaccination strengthens immunity in at-risk patients (e.g., elderly, immunocompromised), decreasing HAP rates, hospitalizations, and mortality, aligning with infection control priorities in healthcare settings.

Question 2

What is the function of progesterone support after embryo transfer in IVF?

  1. A. To stimulate egg growth during the next cycle.
  2. B. To maintain the uterine lining and support early pregnancy.
  3. C. To trigger ovulation during the current cycle.
  4. D. To prevent hormonal imbalances during stimulation.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — To maintain the uterine lining and support early pregnancy.

The correct answer is B: To maintain the uterine lining and support early pregnancy. After embryo transfer in IVF, progesterone support is crucial to ensure the uterine lining remains thick and supportive for the implantation and early development of the embryo. Progesterone helps create a hospitable environment in the uterus for the embryo to implant and grow. It also supports the continued development of the pregnancy until the placenta can take over hormone production. Choice A is incorrect because progesterone support after embryo transfer is not aimed at stimulating egg growth during the next cycle. Choice C is incorrect as progesterone support does not trigger ovulation during the current cycle; ovulation would have already been induced prior to embryo transfer. Choice D is incorrect as preventing hormonal imbalances during stimulation is not the primary function of progesterone support after embryo transfer.

Question 3

The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

  1. A. Feet
  2. B. Nail beds
  3. C. Perineum
  4. D. Oral cavity
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Oral cavity

The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.

Question 4

A college student decides to go to a party the night before a major exam instead of studying. After receiving a low score on the exam, the student tells a fellow student, 'I have to work too much and don't have time to study. It wouldn't matter anyway because the teacher is so unreasonable.' The defense mechanisms the student is using are

  1. A. denial and displacement
  2. B. rationalization and projection
  3. C. reaction formation and resistance
  4. D. regression and compensation
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — rationalization and projection

When stating that it wouldn't matter if the student studied, the student is using rationalization, which is excusing own behavior to avoid guilt, responsibility, conflict, anxiety, or loss of self-respect. When stating that the teacher is unreasonable, the student is using projection or the unconscious blaming of unacceptable inclinations or thoughts as an external object. Denial is the failure to acknowledge an unbearable condition. Displacement is the ventilation of intense feelings toward persons less threatening than the one who aroused those feelings. Reaction formation is acting the opposite of what one thinks or feels. Resistance is overt or covert antagonism toward remembering or processing anxiety-producing information. Regression is moving back to a previous developmental stage to feel safe or have needs met. Compensation is overachievement in one area to offset real or perceived deficiencies in another area.

Question 5

You are monitoring the cardiac rhythm of your 60-year-old female patient with shortness of breath when you note the presence of a possible first-degree atrioventricular block in lead II on the EKG. Which of the following electrocardiogram abnormalities makes you think there is a first-degree AV block present?

  1. A. There are more than one P wave for each QRS complex
  2. B. A P-R interval greater than five small boxes (0.20 seconds) wide on the electrocardiogram tracing
  3. C. The P-R intervals become progressively longer until a QRS complex is dropped altogether
  4. D. The P waves are present but bear no relationship to the QRS complexes
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — A P-R interval greater than five small boxes (0.20 seconds) wide on the electrocardiogram tracing

The correct answer is B: A P-R interval greater than five small boxes (0.20 seconds) wide on the electrocardiogram tracing. In first-degree AV block, there is a delay in the conduction of the electrical impulse from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in a prolonged P-R interval. This delay causes the P-R interval to be longer than usual, typically greater than 0.20 seconds. This is indicative of the conduction abnormality seen in first-degree AV block. Incorrect Choices: A: There are more than one P wave for each QRS complex - This describes a condition known as atrial fibrillation where multiple P waves are present without a consistent relationship to the QRS complexes. C: The P-R intervals become progressively longer until a QRS complex is dropped altogether - This describes a Mobitz type II second-degree AV block where there is a sudden drop of a QRS complex without a prior lengthening of the P-R interval.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.

Ten more LPN exams fundamentals questions

Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.

Question 6

A patient diagnosed with severe and persistent mental illness lives in a homeless shelter. The priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is Powerlessness. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

  1. A. Encourage mutual goal setting.
  2. B. Verbally communicate empathy.
  3. C. Reinforce participation in activities.
  4. D. Demonstrate an accepting attitude.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

A patient is taking rivastigmine. The nurse should teach the patient and family which information about rivastigmine?

  1. A. Hepatotoxicity and jaundice are side effects.
  2. B. The initial dose is 6 mg three times a day.
  3. C. Gastrointestinal distress is a common side effect.
  4. D. Increased appetite and weight gain is a side effect.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 8

Pericardial tamponade and hemorrhagic shock present very similarly in the pre-hospital environment. What is the best way, of those listed, to distinguish between the two diagnoses?

  1. A. Pericardial tamponade presents with jugular vein distension, and hemorrhagic shock normally does not cause jugular vein distension
  2. B. Pericardial tamponade patients present with cyanosis to the face, neck, and upper chest while hemorrhagic shock presents with core cyanosis
  3. C. Hemorrhagic shock presents with hypotension, and pericardial tamponade presents with hypertension
  4. D. The presence of narrow complex tachycardia with hemorrhagic shock and wide complex tachycardia with pericardial tamponade
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 9

Although all of the following are nursing responsibilities, which one would be expected of a nurse with a baccalaureate degree?

  1. A. providing direct physical care
  2. B. using research findings to improve practice
  3. C. administering medications as prescribed
  4. D. collaborating with other healthcare providers
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 10

A client with cystic fibrosis is prescribed dornase alfa (Pulmozyme). What is the primary therapeutic goal of this medication?

  1. A. To reduce lung inflammation.
  2. B. To thin and loosen mucus secretions.
  3. C. To prevent bacterial infections.
  4. D. To improve oxygen absorption.
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 11

When assessing for substances that are known to harm workers lungs, the occupational health nurse should assess their potential exposure to which of the following?

  1. A. Organic acids
  2. B. Propane
  3. C. Asbestos
  4. D. Gypsum
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

Extensions of the sarcolemma that go deep into the muscle fiber are the

  1. A. T-tubules
  2. B. sarcoplasmic reticulum
  3. C. myofibrils
  4. D. sarcomeres
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 13

A nurse is caring for a 6-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis. In order to enhance the childs nutritional status, what intervention should most likely be included in the plan of care?

  1. A. Pancreatic enzyme supplementation with meals
  2. B. Provision of five to six small meals per day rather than three larger meals
  3. C. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
  4. D. Magnesium, thiamine, and iron supplementation
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 14

A woman is leaving on a trip to Hawaii and has come in for a checkup. During the examination the nurse learns that she has diabetes and takes oral hypoglycemic agents. The patient needs to be concerned about which possible effect of her medications?

  1. A. Increased possibility of bruising
  2. B. Skin sensitivity as a result of exposure to salt water
  3. C. Lack of availability of glucose-monitoring supplies
  4. D. Importance of sunscreen and avoiding direct sunlight
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 15

When a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter, which information obtained by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

  1. A. Oral temperature 102° F
  2. B. Apical pulse 102 beats/min
  3. C. Intracranial pressure 18 mm Hg
  4. D. Mean arterial pressure 90 mm Hg
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 39 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.