You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What is the primary purpose of performing percussion over the costovertebral angle during a physical examination?
A. To detect liver enlargement.
B. To assess kidney tenderness.
C. To evaluate diaphragmatic excursion.
D. To detect fluid in the lungs.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — To assess kidney tenderness.
The primary purpose of performing percussion over the costovertebral angle is to assess kidney tenderness. This technique, known as CVA tenderness, helps identify potential kidney issues such as infections or kidney stones. By tapping over this area, any tenderness or pain indicates underlying kidney pathology. This is crucial in diagnosing conditions like pyelonephritis or renal stones.
The other choices are incorrect because:
A: Liver enlargement is typically detected through palpation and imaging studies, not percussion over the costovertebral angle.
C: Evaluating diaphragmatic excursion involves assessing the movement of the diaphragm during respiration, which is not related to percussion in the CVA region.
D: Detecting fluid in the lungs is usually done through auscultation and imaging studies, not percussion over the costovertebral angle.
Question 2
You are treating a 50-year-old male with a cardiac history currently complaining of chest pain. He is breathing at 20 times a minute, has an irregular heart rate of 136 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 120/60. His twelve-lead-tracing indicates the presence of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). What makes the ST-elevation infarction treatment different from a non-STEMI patient's treatment?
A. A non-ST elevation infarction may respond to fibrinolytics, so destination is important for this patient
B. ST-elevation infarctions may respond to fibrinolytics, so time and destination are critical for this patient
C. ST-elevation patients will need a fluid bolus to maintain an adequate blood pressure
D. Nothing, both types will respond to fibrinolytic therapy equally
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — ST-elevation infarctions may respond to fibrinolytics, so time and destination are critical for this patient
The correct answer is B because in ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), prompt reperfusion therapy is crucial to minimize cardiac damage. As the patient has ST-elevation on the ECG, this indicates complete occlusion of a coronary artery, necessitating urgent treatment. Fibrinolytics can help dissolve the clot and restore blood flow, but timing is critical. Time is muscle in STEMI, so the door-to-balloon time or door-to-needle time should be minimized. Destination is also important as the patient needs to be transferred to a facility capable of performing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) if fibrinolytics are not available. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A and D are incorrect because non-ST elevation infarctions do not typically require fibrinolytics, and choice C is incorrect as fluid bolus is not a standard treatment for STEMI.
Question 3
You are on-scene assisting another crew with a childbirth call that quickly turned into a neonatal resuscitation. The newborn does not have a palpable brachial pulse, but muffled heart tones and the monitor confirm a sluggish heart rate of 55 beats per minute. After reassessing him after a few minutes of high-quality chest compressions and effective ventilations with 100% oxygen concentration, the patient's heart rate fails to respond. Which of the following would be considered a class IIa intervention for this patient?
A. 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intraosseous route
B. 0.01 mg/mL of a 1:1,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intramuscular route
C. 0.25 mg/mL of a 1:1,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the endotracheal tube route
D. 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered intravenously
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intraosseous route
The correct answer is A: 0.1 mg/mL of a 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine delivered via the intraosseous route. In neonatal resuscitation, when chest compressions and ventilation do not improve the heart rate, administering epinephrine is crucial. In this scenario, the intraosseous route is preferred due to the difficulty in obtaining IV access in neonates. Intraosseous administration provides rapid access to the circulatory system, ensuring timely delivery of medication. Choice B is incorrect because intramuscular administration may lead to delayed absorption and inconsistent drug levels. Choice C is incorrect as endotracheal administration of epinephrine is less effective and associated with higher doses needed. Choice D is incorrect as intravenous access may be challenging in neonates and intraosseous route is preferred for rapid drug delivery.
Question 4
Allen and Summers in their JAMA article 'Medicaid Expansion and Health,' claims that since the expansion of Medicaid:
A. Population-level mortality has declined
B. In-hospital mortality has declined
C. Long-term control of diabetes has improved
D. None of the above
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Population-level mortality has declined
Step-by-step rationale for why answer A is correct:
1. Allen and Summers claimed Medicaid expansion led to improved access to healthcare.
2. Improved access to healthcare can lead to early detection and treatment of health conditions.
3. Early detection and treatment can reduce overall mortality rates at the population level.
4. Therefore, it is reasonable to conclude that population-level mortality has declined post-Medicaid expansion.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- Option B (In-hospital mortality has declined) does not directly connect Medicaid expansion to population-level mortality.
- Option C (Long-term control of diabetes has improved) is not explicitly mentioned in the claim made by Allen and Summers.
- Option D (None of the above) is incorrect as the claim specifically refers to a decline in population-level mortality.
Question 5
Upon assessment of a patient, the nurse determines that a patient is at risk of losing body heat through the process of convection. What would be the nurses best response?
A. Turn off the overhead fan in the patients room.
B. Remove the patients ice pack.
C. Reduce the temperature in the room.
D. Increase the temperature in the room.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Turn off the overhead fan in the patients room.
Convection involves heat loss through air movement, such as a fan blowing cool air over the body. Turning off the fan directly addresses this by reducing airflow, minimizing heat dissipation. Removing an ice pack relates to conduction, not convection, as it involves direct contact rather than air movement. Reducing the room temperature might affect evaporation or overall comfort but doesnt target convection specifically. Increasing the room temperature could influence evaporation or radiation but doesnt stop the convective process caused by moving air. Choice A is the best response because it aligns with the mechanism of convection, where warm air around the body is replaced by cooler moving air. This intervention is practical and effective in a clinical setting, reflecting the nurses understanding of heat loss principles and patient thermoregulation.
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Question 6
During an enema the resident should be in the ______ position.
A. Lateral
B. Supine
C. Sims
D. Fowler's
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Sims position. During an enema, the Sims position is preferred because it helps to facilitate the flow of the enema solution and allows for easier insertion of the enema tip. In the Sims position, the resident lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest. This position helps to promote the movement of the solution towards the rectum and reduces the risk of discomfort or injury.
Incorrect choices:
A: Lateral position is a general term and does not specify the optimal positioning for an enema.
B: Supine position (lying flat on the back) is not ideal for administering an enema as it can make it harder for the solution to flow properly.
D: Fowler's position (sitting up at a 45-90 degree angle) is not suitable for enema administration as it may not allow for proper flow and insertion of the enema tip.
A nurse is planning the care of a client with bronchiectasis. What goal of care should the nurse prioritize?
A. The patient will successfully mobilize pulmonary secretions
B. The patient will maintain an oxygen saturation level of 98%
C. The patients pulmonary blood pressure will decrease to within reference ranges
D. The patient will resume prediagnosis level of function within 72 hours
Correct answer:
In bronchiectasis care, the nurse prioritizes the patient successfully mobilizing pulmonary secretions, addressing the disease's core issue chronic bronchial dilation trapping thick, purulent mucus. Effective clearance via chest physiotherapy or postural drainage reduces infection risk, obstruction, and dyspnea, improving ventilation and quality of life in this irreversible condition. Maintaining 98% oxygen saturation is unrealistic 90-94% often suffices in chronic lung disease and not the primary focus. Reducing pulmonary blood pressure isn't a bronchiectasis hallmark; it's more relevant in cor pulmonale or pulmonary hypertension. Resuming prediagnosis function in 72 hours is unfeasible given bronchiectasis's permanence. The nurse's goal of secretion mobilization tracked by sputum volume drives symptom relief, aligning with evidence-based management.
What nursing intervention best demonstrates a commitment to client autonomy?
A. Establishing client-centered goals for decreased chronic pain.
B. Assessing a client for potential postprocedural complications.
C. Collaborating with a client while developing nursing care plan.
D. Encouraging a patient to ambulate independently following surgery.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because collaborating with a client while developing a nursing care plan empowers the client to actively participate in their own care decisions, respecting their autonomy. This approach ensures that the client's values, preferences, and needs are considered, fostering a sense of control over their healthcare journey.
Incorrect choices:
A: This option focuses on setting goals for the client without necessarily involving them in the decision-making process, limiting their autonomy.
B: While important for client safety, assessing for postprocedural complications does not directly promote client autonomy as it is more focused on the nurse's responsibilities.
D: Encouraging independent ambulation is beneficial, but it does not necessarily involve the client in the decision-making process, unlike collaborating on a care plan.
In a research study performed by Schneuder, L., Crenshaw, J., and Gilder, R. (2017), which action by the nurse will be implemented following a cesarean delivery?
A. Allow the birth partner to hand the neonate to the mother.
B. Assist the mother and partner to cut the umbilical cord.
C. Move the neonate into the visual field of the mother.
D. Encourage skin-to-skin contact between the mother and neonate.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Encourage skin-to-skin contact between the mother and neonate. This action is crucial following a cesarean delivery to promote bonding, regulate the baby's temperature, and facilitate breastfeeding. Skin-to-skin contact also helps stabilize the baby's heart rate, breathing, and blood sugar levels.
A: Allowing the birth partner to hand the neonate to the mother may be a good practice but is not as essential as skin-to-skin contact for immediate benefits.
B: Assisting the mother and partner to cut the umbilical cord is not typically the nurse's responsibility immediately after a cesarean delivery and does not provide the same benefits as skin-to-skin contact.
C: Moving the neonate into the visual field of the mother is important for bonding but does not offer the same physiological benefits as direct skin-to-skin contact.
After 2 months of tuberculosis (TB) treatment with isoniazid, rifampin (Rifadin), pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB). Which action should the nurse take next?
A. Teach about drug-resistant TB.
B. Schedule directly observed therapy.
C. Ask the patient whether medications have been taken as directed.
D. Discuss the need for an injectable antibiotic with the health care provider.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Discuss the need for an injectable antibiotic with the health care provider. If a patient continues to have positive sputum smears for AFB after 2 months of standard TB treatment, it suggests drug resistance. The next step would be to consider adding an injectable antibiotic like amikacin or streptomycin to the treatment regimen. This decision should be made in consultation with the healthcare provider based on culture and sensitivity testing results.
A: Teaching about drug-resistant TB is important, but the immediate action should be to adjust the treatment regimen.
B: Scheduling directly observed therapy may help with medication adherence but does not address the need for a change in treatment.
C: Asking about medication adherence is important, but if the patient has been compliant, a change in treatment is necessary.
A 32-year-old white male comes to your clinic, complaining of aching on the right side of his testicle. He has felt this aching for several months. He states that as the day progresses the aching increases, but when he wakes up in the morning he is pain-free. He denies any pain with urination and states that the pain doesn't change with sexual activity. He denies any fatigue, weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is a married hospital administrator with two children. He notes that he and his wife have been trying to have another baby this year but have so far been unsuccessful despite frequent intercourse. He denies using tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. His father has high blood pressure but his mother is healthy. On examination you see a young man appearing his stated age with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised with no lesions. He has no scars along his inguinal area, and palpation of the area shows no lymphadenopathy. On palpation of his scrotum you feel testes with no discrete masses. Upon placing your finger through the right inguinal ring you feel what seems like a bunch of spaghetti. Asking him to bear down, you feel no bulges. The left inguinal ring is unremarkable, with no bulges on bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What abnormality of the scrotum does he most likely have?
A. Hydrocele
B. Scrotal hernia
C. Scrotal edema
D. Varicocele
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Varicocele. Varicocele is the most likely abnormality in this case due to the presence of a "bag of worms" feeling upon palpation through the right inguinal ring, especially when the patient bears down. Varicocele is a dilation of the veins within the spermatic cord, leading to a mass resembling a bag of worms. The patient's symptoms of aching in the testicle that worsens throughout the day and improves in the morning are characteristic of varicocele, as increased intra-abdominal pressure exacerbates the symptoms. The absence of discrete masses on palpation and no bulges on bearing down help rule out other conditions like scrotal hernia. Hydrocele presents as a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicle, not a "bag of worms." Scrotal edema would present with swelling and pitting edema, which are not described in this case.
The most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is to:
A. Act only when advised that the action is ethically sound
B. Not takes sides, remain neutral and fair
C. Assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team
D. Be accountable for his or her own actions
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Be accountable for his or her own actions. This is the most important nursing responsibility when ethical situations arise because accountability ensures that the nurse takes ownership of their decisions and actions, reflecting on the ethical implications. By being accountable, the nurse acknowledges their role in the ethical situation and works towards resolving it.
Choice A is incorrect because relying solely on external advice may not align with the nurse's personal ethical beliefs and professional standards. Choice B is incorrect as neutrality may not always be appropriate in ethical dilemmas where advocating for the patient's best interest is crucial. Choice C is incorrect as ethical questions are not solely the responsibility of the health team, but also of the individual nurse who directly interacts with the patient.
A patient has suddenly developed shortness of breath and appears to be in significant respiratory distress. After calling the physician and placing the patient on oxygen, which action should the nurse take next?
A. Count the patient's respirations.
B. Percuss the thorax bilaterally, noting any differences in percussion tones.
C. Call for a chest x-ray and wait for the results before continuing the assessment.
D. Inspect the thorax for any new masses and bleeding associated with respirations.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Percuss the thorax bilaterally, noting any differences in percussion tones. This action should be taken next because it can provide valuable information about the underlying cause of the patient's respiratory distress. Percussion can help identify abnormal air or fluid accumulation in the lungs or pleural space, which could be contributing to the breathing difficulties. It is an important assessment technique to determine if there are changes in lung density or presence of abnormal sounds.
Counting respirations (A) is important but may not provide immediate information on the cause of distress. Waiting for a chest x-ray (C) can delay necessary interventions. Inspecting the thorax for masses or bleeding (D) is not as crucial as assessing for changes in percussion tones in a patient experiencing sudden respiratory distress.
A school nurse is caring for a 10-year-old girl who is having an asthma attack. What is the preferred intervention to alleviate this clients airflow obstruction?
A. Administer corticosteroids by metered dose inhaler
B. Administer inhaled anticholinergics
C. Administer an inhaled beta-adrenergic agonist
D. Utilize a peak flow monitoring device
Correct answer:
During an asthma attack, the preferred intervention is an inhaled beta-adrenergic agonist (e.g., albuterol), which rapidly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, reversing airflow obstruction from bronchospasm, mucus, and inflammation. This short-acting bronchodilator acts within minutes, opening airways and relieving acute dyspnea, aligning with asthma guidelines (e.g., GINA) for exacerbations. Corticosteroids reduce inflammation but take hours, unsuitable for immediate relief. Anticholinergics (e.g., ipratropium) complement beta-agonists in severe cases but aren't first-line alone. Peak flow monitoring assesses obstruction severity, not treating it. The nurse's swift administration via inhaler ensuring proper technique (e.g., spacer use) restores ventilation, critical for this child's acute respiratory crisis, preventing escalation to status asthmaticus.
The public health nurse is presenting a health-promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?
A. Monthly self-breast exams
B. Smoking cessation
C. Annual colonoscopies
D. Monthly testicular exams
Correct answer:
Lung cancer tops the list of cancer deaths in North America for both men and women, as noted in the feedback, with over 570,000 deaths projected in 2011 alone. Smoking is the primary risk factor for lung cancer, making cessation the most direct intervention to tackle this killer. Self-breast and testicular exams target breast and testicular cancers, respectively, which rank lower in mortality (breast is second for women, prostate second for men). Colonoscopies address colorectal cancer, third in frequency, but lung cancer's dominance ties directly to smoking's prevalence. By pushing cessation, nurses hit the root cause head-on, reducing exposure to carcinogens like tar and nicotine that drive malignant transformation in lung tissue. This aligns with primary prevention, cutting incidence before it starts, unlike screening which catches disease later.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 74 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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