You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
To decrease overtime, the manager of a surgical unit offers nurses who get their work finished on time for an entire 2-month period an extra day off with pay at regular time. The nurse is enacting what model of leadership?
A. Principal agent theory
B. Favoritism
C. Quantum leadership
D. Servant leadership
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Principal agent theory
The correct answer is A: Principal agent theory. This model involves aligning the interests of the manager (principal) with those of the nurses (agents) to reduce overtime. By offering an incentive for completing work on time, the manager is motivating the nurses to act in the best interest of the unit. This approach aims to minimize the agency problem where agents may not always act in the best interest of the principal.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Favoritism - Offering an incentive based on performance is not favoritism.
C: Quantum leadership - Quantum leadership focuses on adapting to change and complexity, not specifically on incentivizing behavior to reduce overtime.
D: Servant leadership - While servant leadership involves serving the needs of others, it does not directly address the issue of reducing overtime through incentives based on performance.
Question 2
A student is late for his appointment and has rushed across campus to the health clinic. The nurse should:
A. Allow 5 minutes for him to relax and rest before checking his vital signs.
B. Check the blood pressure in both arms, expecting a difference in the readings because of his recent exercise.
C. Immediately monitor his vital signs on his arrival at the clinic and then 5 minutes later, recording any differences.
D. Check his blood pressure in the supine position, which will provide a more accurate reading and will allow him to relax at the same time.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Allow 5 minutes for him to relax and rest before checking his vital signs.
The correct answer is A because allowing the student 5 minutes to relax and rest before checking his vital signs is important for obtaining accurate readings. When someone rushes across campus, their heart rate and blood pressure are likely elevated, which can lead to inaccurate readings if taken immediately. Allowing the student to relax will help stabilize their vital signs and provide a more accurate baseline measurement.
Choice B is incorrect because checking blood pressure in both arms expecting a difference due to recent exercise is not necessary in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as immediate monitoring may not provide accurate readings due to the student's rushed state. Choice D is incorrect as checking blood pressure in the supine position is not necessary and may not accurately reflect the student's true vital signs in this situation.
Question 3
A nurse is planning care for an older adult who lives with a number of chronic health problems. For which of the following nursing diagnoses would education of the patient be the nurse's highest priority?
A. Risk for impaired physical mobility related to joint pain
B. Functional urinary incontinence related to decreased mobility
C. Activity intolerance related to contractures
D. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to nonadherence to therapeutic regimen
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to nonadherence to therapeutic regimen
Education is the cornerstone intervention for nursing diagnoses tied to self-management, like 'Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to nonadherence.' For an older adult with chronic conditions, teaching adherence medication schedules, diet, or monitoring empowers control over multiple health issues, preventing exacerbations (e.g., heart failure from missed doses). Mobility, incontinence, and activity intolerance require education but prioritize physical interventions (e.g., therapy, aids) over knowledge alone. Nonadherence risks broader decline, making it the nurse's top focus effective education can mitigate all listed issues by fostering regimen fidelity. This aligns with nursing's health promotion role, addressing the root of chronic care success, especially in aging populations where polypharmacy and complexity amplify education's impact.
Question 4
________ care involves the whole person, including his or her physical, social, emotional, and spiritual needs.
A. Hieroglyphic
B. Holistic
C. Holographic
D. Histrionic
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Holistic
The correct answer is B: Holistic. Holistic care considers the whole person, addressing physical, social, emotional, and spiritual needs. This approach focuses on treating the individual as a whole, rather than just focusing on specific symptoms or issues.
Choice A: Hieroglyphic - This term refers to ancient Egyptian writing symbols, which is unrelated to the concept of holistic care.
Choice C: Holographic - This term pertains to a three-dimensional image formed by light, not relevant to the context of comprehensive care for an individual.
Choice D: Histrionic - This term describes overly dramatic or attention-seeking behavior and is not related to the concept of holistic care.
In summary, the correct answer is B because it aligns with the fundamental principle of addressing all aspects of a person's well-being in a comprehensive manner.
Question 5
A nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy that has been diagnosed with a respiratory infection. The client is receiving vancomycin hydrochloride (Vancocin) 500 mg intravenously every 12 hours. Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
A. decreased hearing acuity
B. photophobia
C. hypotension
D. bradycardia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — decreased hearing acuity
Vancomycin, an antibiotic used for serious infections like respiratory ones, has notable adverse effects, including ototoxicity, which can manifest as decreased hearing acuity due to damage to the auditory nerve. This risk is higher with rapid infusion or high doses, requiring the nurse to monitor hearing changes closely, especially in vulnerable clients. Nephrotoxicity, another concern, might cause urinary changes, while rapid administration can lead to ‘red-neck syndrome,' marked by flushing or hypotension, but hearing loss is a distinct toxic effect. Photophobia and bradycardia aren't linked to vancomycin. Assessing hearing ensures early detection of ototoxicity, prompting dose adjustments or discontinuation to prevent permanent damage, a critical aspect of safe administration in clients with complex conditions like tracheostomy-related infections.
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Question 6
Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
Correct answer:
Madeleine Leininger's theory positions caring as nursing's essence, a unifying force distinguishing it from medicine or other fields. Developed in the 1970s, her Culture Care Theory asserts that care is a universal human need, but its expression varies culturally. She describes it as central (core to nursing), unifying (binding the profession), and dominant (setting it apart), unlike Benner's skill focus, Watson's spiritual caring, or Swanson's process-oriented approach. For example, a nurse adjusting pain management for a patient's cultural beliefs reflects Leininger's view. Her mnemonic ‘CUD I LIE IN GER' (Central, Unifying, Dominant) aids recall, emphasizing caring's primacy. This perspective shaped transcultural nursing, urging practitioners to integrate cultural competence into care, a critical distinction in today's diverse healthcare landscape.
A patient with pneumonia has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which intervention is most important?
A. Administer prescribed bronchodilators.
B. Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
C. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer every hour.
D. Increase the patient's fluid intake to thin secretions.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. Oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute can help increase oxygen levels and alleviate symptoms.
Choice A (Administer prescribed bronchodilators) is incorrect as bronchodilators are not the first-line treatment for hypoxemia in pneumonia.
Choice C (Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer every hour) is incorrect as while important for respiratory hygiene, it does not address the immediate need for oxygen therapy in a hypoxemic patient.
Choice D (Increase the patient's fluid intake to thin secretions) is incorrect as it addresses secretion management, which is not the priority in this scenario where oxygenation is compromised.
Which factor related to the agent will the nurse include when discussing the epidemiological triad?
A. Pathogenicity
B. Susceptibility
C. Reservoirs
D. Environmental changes
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Pathogenicity. In the epidemiological triad model, pathogenicity refers to the ability of an agent to cause disease. This factor is crucial as it directly relates to the agent's capability to infect and harm individuals. Pathogenicity influences the agent's virulence, infectivity, and capability to cause disease outbreaks.
Susceptibility (B) refers to the host's vulnerability to the agent and is not directly related to the agent itself. Reservoirs (C) refer to the environment where the agent resides and can multiply, but it is not a factor related to the agent's inherent characteristics. Environmental changes (D) may affect the transmission of the agent but do not specifically relate to the agent's properties. Therefore, pathogenicity is the most relevant factor related to the agent when discussing the epidemiological triad.
The case manager for a group of patients with COPD is providing health education. What is most important for the nurse to assess when providing instructions on self-management to these patients?
A. Knowledge of alternative treatment modalities
B. Family awareness of functional ability and activities of daily living (ADLs)
C. Knowledge of the pathophysiology of the disease process
D. Knowledge about self-care and their therapeutic regime
Correct answer:
In COPD self-management education, the nurse must assess patients' knowledge of self-care and their therapeutic regimen e.g., medication use (inhalers), breathing techniques, and exacerbation action plans as it's most important for daily control and preventing hospitalization. Understanding how to use bronchodilators, adhere to schedules, and recognize worsening symptoms (e.g., increased dyspnea) empowers patients to manage this chronic, irreversible condition effectively, per COPD guidelines (e.g., GOLD). Alternative treatments (e.g., acupuncture) lack evidence for core management. Family awareness of ADLs helps support but isn't the patient's primary learning need. Pathophysiology knowledge aids context but isn't essential for practical self-care. The nurse's focus on this area ensures adherence and skill mastery, critical for long-term COPD outcomes.
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient with COPD. What should the nurse include as the most important area of teaching?
A. Avoiding extremes of heat and cold
B. Setting and accepting realistic short- and long-range goals
C. Adopting a lifestyle of moderate activity
D. Avoiding emotional disturbances and stressful situations
Correct answer:
The most important teaching area for a COPD patient is setting and accepting realistic short- and long-range goals, addressing the disease's progressive, incurable nature. Short-term goals (e.g., walking 10 minutes daily) and long-range goals (e.g., maintaining independence) adapt to declining lung function (e.g., low FEV1), reducing frustration and enhancing self-efficacy. Avoiding temperature extremes helps comfort but doesn't alter disease course. Moderate activity is beneficial but secondary overexertion risks dyspnea without goal-setting's framework. Avoiding stress aids coping but isn't the core focus; emotional triggers don't drive COPD pathology. The nurse's emphasis on realistic goals specific, measurable guides patients to pace activities and accept limitations, aligning with chronic disease management principles for sustained quality of life.
The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client's plan of care?
A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.
Correct answer:
In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care.
Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.
Alexandra is a 28-year-old editor who presents to the clinic with abdominal pain. The pain is a dull ache, located in the right upper quadrant, that she rates as a 3 at the least and an 8 at the worst. The pain started a few weeks ago, it lasts for 2 to 3 hours at a time, it comes and goes, and it seems to be worse a couple of hours after eating. She has noticed that it starts after eating greasy foods, so she has cut down on these as much as she can. Initially it occurred once a week, but now it is occurring every other day. Nothing makes it better. From this description, which of the seven attributes of a symptom has been omitted?
A. Setting in which the symptom occurs
B. Associated manifestations
C. Quality
D. Timing
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Associated manifestations. Associated manifestations refer to other symptoms or signs that accompany the primary symptom. In this case, the primary symptom is abdominal pain, and the description provided focuses solely on the characteristics of the pain itself (location, intensity, duration, aggravating factors), omitting any mention of other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, fever, or jaundice that may be present with certain conditions. By not including information about associated manifestations, the description lacks a complete picture of the symptom presentation, making choice B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the description does cover the setting in which the symptom occurs (after eating greasy foods), the quality of the pain (dull ache), and the timing of the pain (2 to 3 hours after eating).
A nurse explains to the family of a mentally ill patient how a nurse-patient relationship differs from social relationships. Which is the best explanation?
A. "The focus is on the patient. Problems are discussed by the nurse and patient, but solutions are implemented by the patient."
B. "The focus shifts from nurse to patient as the relationship develops. Advice is given by both, and solutions are implemented."
C. "The focus of the relationship is socialization. Mutual needs are met, and feelings are shared openly."
D. "The focus is creation of a partnership in which each member is concerned with growth and satisfaction of the other."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it highlights the therapeutic nature of the nurse-patient relationship. In this relationship, the focus is on the patient's needs and problems, with the nurse providing support and guidance. By discussing problems together and allowing the patient to implement solutions, it empowers the patient in their own care.
Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a more mutual exchange of advice and implementation of solutions, which may not always be appropriate in a therapeutic setting.
Choice C is incorrect because while sharing feelings is important in the nurse-patient relationship, the primary focus is not on socialization or meeting mutual needs.
Choice D is incorrect as it emphasizes a partnership focused on mutual growth and satisfaction, which goes beyond the boundaries of a therapeutic nurse-patient relationship.
What is the most important goal for a nurse when providing care for a patient with bulimia nervosa?
A. To promote weight loss through strict dietary control.
B. To help the patient eliminate purging behaviors and develop healthy eating habits.
C. To encourage excessive exercise to balance caloric intake.
D. To focus solely on addressing body image issues.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: To help the patient eliminate purging behaviors and develop healthy eating habits. This goal is important because it addresses the core issues of bulimia nervosa, which are unhealthy purging behaviors and distorted eating patterns. By helping the patient stop purging and establish healthy eating habits, the nurse can promote long-term recovery and overall well-being.
Choice A is incorrect because promoting weight loss through strict dietary control can exacerbate the patient's unhealthy relationship with food and body image. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging excessive exercise can contribute to a cycle of compulsive behaviors and worsen the patient's physical and mental health. Choice D is incorrect because focusing solely on body image issues neglects the underlying psychological factors contributing to bulimia nervosa.
A nurse is evaluating therapy with the family of a client with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following would indicate that the therapy was successful?
A. The parents reinforce increased decision making by the client.
B. The parents clearly verbalize their expectations for the client.
C. The client verbalizes that family meals are now enjoyable.
D. The client tells her parents about feelings of low self-esteem.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because it shows empowerment and independence for the client, which are key goals in therapy for anorexia nervosa. Reinforcing increased decision-making by the client indicates progress towards autonomy and self-efficacy. This is important for long-term recovery.
Choice B is incorrect as clear verbalization of expectations by parents may not necessarily indicate successful therapy. It could potentially lead to increased pressure and anxiety for the client.
Choice C is incorrect as verbalizing enjoyment of family meals may not necessarily indicate successful therapy. It could be a temporary response or avoidance of conflict.
Choice D is incorrect as sharing feelings of low self-esteem with parents may indicate trust and communication but does not necessarily represent successful therapy outcomes for anorexia nervosa.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 73 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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