You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The role of the nurse and other health professions in chronic disease is to:
A. Support the person in managing their condition
B. Provide direction to the person about their treatment
C. Ensure the person takes their medications and avoids risk factors
D. Decide on the best approach to manage the condition and direct the implementation of this care
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Support the person in managing their condition
Chronic disease management hinges on patient empowerment, not authoritarian control. Supporting individuals in managing their condition aligns with modern nursing philosophy, fostering self-efficacy through education, emotional support, and resource provision key in texts like Deravin and Anderson (2019). Providing direction implies guidance, but it's less collaborative than support, often overstepping patient autonomy. Ensuring medication adherence and risk avoidance is paternalistic, assuming enforcement over partnership, which conflicts with patient-centered care principles. Deciding and directing care outright disregards patient input, undermining shared decision-making critical for long-term adherence in chronic illness. Support encompasses holistic care physical, psychological, and social enabling patients to navigate their condition, adapt lifestyles, and cope with challenges, reflecting the multidisciplinary team's role in enhancing quality of life rather than dictating it.
Question 2
Describe the purpose of healthcare system
A. To reduce healthcare costs
B. To improve, restore, or maintain health
C. To expand healthcare facilities
D. To promote government-funded healthcare
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — To improve, restore, or maintain health
The correct answer is B: To improve, restore, or maintain health. The purpose of a healthcare system is primarily focused on enhancing the health and well-being of individuals. It aims to provide medical services, preventive care, and treatments to improve health outcomes. This choice aligns with the fundamental goal of healthcare systems worldwide.
Choice A: To reduce healthcare costs - While cost reduction is a consideration in healthcare systems, it is not the primary purpose. The main focus is on providing quality care to individuals.
Choice C: To expand healthcare facilities - While expanding healthcare facilities may be a part of improving the healthcare system, it is not the primary purpose. The primary goal is to enhance health outcomes.
Choice D: To promote government-funded healthcare - While government funding is a crucial aspect of many healthcare systems, it is not the sole purpose. The primary goal is to improve, restore, or maintain health for individuals.
Question 3
A nurse is investigating a bacterial illness that has caused a health problem in the community. Only some of the people exposed to the bacteria have become ill. Which of the following factors best explains why this would have happened?
A. Chemical agent factors
B. Environmental factors
C. Host factors
D. Physical agent factors
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Host factors
The correct answer is C: Host factors. Host factors refer to individual characteristics that influence susceptibility to a particular disease. In this scenario, the variation in illness among those exposed to the same bacteria suggests that host factors play a crucial role. Factors such as immune status, genetic predisposition, age, and overall health can affect an individual's ability to combat the bacterial illness. This explains why only some of the exposed individuals became ill.
A: Chemical agent factors - This choice refers to agents like toxic chemicals, which are not directly relevant to the scenario described.
B: Environmental factors - While environmental factors can play a role in disease transmission, the question specifically focuses on why only some individuals became ill despite exposure to the same bacteria.
D: Physical agent factors - This choice relates to physical agents like radiation or trauma, which are not applicable to a bacterial illness scenario.
Question 4
You are obtaining an arterial blood gas in the radial artery on a retired cab driver who has been hospitalized in the intensive care unit for a stroke. You are concerned about the possibility of arterial insufficiency. You perform the Allen test. This means that you:
A. Checked for patency of the radial artery
B. Checked for patency of the brachial artery
C. Checked for patency of the ulnar artery
D. Checked for patency of the femoral artery
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Checked for patency of the ulnar artery
The correct answer is C: Checked for patency of the ulnar artery. The Allen test is used to assess the collateral circulation of the hand before arterial blood sampling from the radial artery. This involves occluding both the ulnar and radial arteries and then releasing pressure on the ulnar artery while observing the return of color to the hand. If the ulnar artery is patent, the hand should regain color within 5-10 seconds, indicating adequate collateral circulation. This is important to prevent ischemic complications.
Choice A (Checked for patency of the radial artery) is incorrect because the Allen test specifically evaluates the ulnar artery's patency, not the radial artery.
Choice B (Checked for patency of the brachial artery) is incorrect because the Allen test focuses on the collateral circulation in the hand, not the brachial artery.
Choice D (Checked for patency of the femoral artery) is incorrect because the Allen test is not used to assess the femoral artery
Question 5
Which approach to problem-solving tests any number of solutions until one is found that works for that particular problem?
A. Intuition
B. Routine
C. Scientific method
D. Trial and error
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Trial and error
Trial and error involves systematically testing multiple solutions until an effective one is identified, often used when the problem's nature is unclear or lacks a predefined approach. This method relies on persistence, as each unsuccessful attempt narrows down options until success is achieved, making it practical for unique or complex issues. In nursing, trial and error might apply to adjusting interventions when standard protocols fail, such as finding the best position to alleviate a patient's discomfort. Intuition relies on instinct rather than testing, lacking the systematic nature of trial and error. Routine implies following established habits, not exploring new solutions. The scientific method, while systematic, involves hypothesis testing and experimentation, not the broad testing of solutions typical of trial and error. Thus, trial and error stands out as the approach that tests numerous possibilities until one works, aligning perfectly with the question's description.
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Question 6
Which patient does the nurse recognize as having the highest risk for ovarian cancer?
A. A 24-year-old nulliparous woman who has a history of multiple sexual partners
B. A 32-year-old woman who has had six live births and a history of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
C. A 55-year-old woman who reached menarche at age 12 and menopause at age 54
D. A 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the patient is a 64-year-old nulliparous woman who has taken hormone replacement therapy for 8 years. Nulliparity (never giving birth) and prolonged use of hormone replacement therapy are both risk factors for ovarian cancer. Age is also a significant risk factor for ovarian cancer, with the highest incidence in women over 60.
Choice A is incorrect because although having multiple sexual partners may increase the risk of certain sexually transmitted infections, it is not a direct risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice B is incorrect because while HPV infection is associated with cervical cancer, it is not a known risk factor for ovarian cancer.
Choice C is incorrect because the age of menarche and menopause are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer.
In summary, the correct answer, D, combines the highest risk factors for ovarian cancer, which are nulliparity, prolonged hormone replacement therapy, and older age.
Which viewpoint of an Asian American family will most affect decision making about care?
A. The father is the authority figure.
B. The mother is head of the household.
C. Women should make their own decisions.
D. Emotional communication styles are desirable.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because in traditional Asian American families, the father typically holds the authority in decision-making. This cultural norm influences how care decisions are made within the family. The father's role as the authority figure means that his opinions and decisions are highly regarded and often determine the course of action. This dynamic can impact the entire family's approach to care, including healthcare choices, financial decisions, and overall well-being.
Choice B is incorrect because it goes against the traditional gender roles in Asian American families where the father usually holds the primary authority. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on individual decision-making, which may not align with the collective decision-making process often seen in Asian American families. Choice D is incorrect because emotional communication styles, while important, may not be the primary factor influencing decision-making about care in Asian American families.
Which nursing actions will increase efficient management of client care and decrease the ramifications of the nursing shortage?
A. Pursuing postlicensure education
B. Becoming cross-trained in another area of the hospital
C. Taking early retirement
D. Implementing evidenced-based clinical pathways
Correct answer:
Addressing the nursing shortage and improving client care efficiency requires strategic actions that bolster the workforce and optimize practice. Pursuing postlicensure education enhances nurses' skills and adaptability, enabling them to handle diverse patient needs effectively, thus reducing strain from shortages. Becoming cross-trained in other hospital areas increases flexibility, allowing nurses to cover gaps and maintain care continuity across units. Implementing evidence-based clinical pathways standardizes care with proven methods, streamlining processes and minimizing errors, which is crucial when staffing is limited. Coordinating services before discharge ensures smoother transitions, reducing readmissions and workload. Taking early retirement, however, exacerbates the shortage by reducing experienced staff, counteracting efficiency goals. These proactive measures collectively strengthen care delivery, mitigate shortage impacts, and support a resilient healthcare system.
A nurse manager works in a setting where projections for the future include a more diverse ethnic mix of older adults. Which action will the nurse manager take?
A. Recruit multilingual nurses.
B. Request volunteers for the ethics committee.
C. Develop nurses' cultural competence.
D. Teach nurses about a variety of religious practices.
Correct answer:
Nurses working in a setting with a diverse ethnic mix will need to exhibit cultural competence. Thus, the nurse manager should work to develop cultural competence in nursing staff. Developing nurses' cultural competence involves understanding and respecting the beliefs, values, and practices of different cultural groups, which is essential for providing effective care. Recruiting multilingual nurses could be beneficial, but cultural competence goes beyond language skills to encompass a deeper understanding of cultural nuances. Teaching nurses about a variety of religious practices is important for a holistic approach to care, but focusing solely on religious practices may not fully address the diverse cultural needs of older adults. Ethical dilemmas may not be directly related to the projected increase in diversity, so requesting volunteers for the ethics committee does not directly address the need for cultural competence in caring for a more diverse ethnic mix of older adults.
A patient is ordered to take an extended-release medication twice daily but has difficulty swallowing the tablet because of its size. The nurse will perform which action?
A. Contact the provider to discuss an alternate form of the medication.
B. Crush the tablet and put it in applesauce to help the patient swallow it.
C. Cut the tablet in half so the patient can take it more easily.
D. Dissolve the tablet in liquid.
Correct answer:
Extended-release medications are formulated to release their active ingredients gradually over time, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels in the bloodstream. Crushing, cutting, or dissolving these tablets destroys their time-release mechanism, potentially causing an immediate release of the full dose, which could lead to toxicity or reduced efficacy as the drug's duration of action is compromised. Option B is incorrect because crushing is contraindicated for extended-release forms. Option C is also wrong as cutting disrupts the release profile, and Option D is invalid since dissolving isn't appropriate for this formulation. The safest and most effective action is for the nurse to consult the healthcare provider to explore alternative forms, such as a liquid or smaller tablet, that maintain the extended-release property while addressing the patient's swallowing difficulty. This ensures patient safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen, making A the only appropriate choice.
A client is expressing anger about his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief.
B. Ignore the client's anger and continue with the plan of care.
C. Tell the client that anger is not going to help his situation.
D. Encourage the client to express his anger.
Correct answer:
When a client is expressing anger about a diagnosis, it is essential for the nurse to validate the client's feelings. Choice A is correct because reassuring the client that anger is an expected response to grief acknowledges the client's emotions and encourages expression, fostering a therapeutic relationship. This validation helps the client feel understood and supported during a challenging time. Choice B is incorrect as ignoring the client's anger can lead to feelings of neglect and hinder effective communication, which is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice C is inappropriate because telling the client that anger is not helpful dismisses the client's emotions and can further escalate the situation, potentially damaging the nurse-client relationship. Choice D is not the best option as it does not involve acknowledging the client's feelings or providing support and validation, which are vital in promoting emotional well-being and trust between the client and the nurse.
A 24-year-old man sustains multiple fractured ribs bilaterally as a result of being crushed in a press at a plywood factory. Examination in the ED reveals a flail segment of the patient's thorax. Primary resuscitation includes high-flow oxygen administration via a nonrebreathing mask
A. and initiation of Ringers lactate solution. The patient exhibits progressive confusion
B. cyanosis
C. and tachypne Management at this time should consist of:
D. Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. In the case of a flail chest, where multiple ribs are fractured causing a segment of the chest wall to move independently from the rest of the thorax, the patient is at high risk of respiratory compromise. Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are necessary to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation, as the flail segment impairs the ability of the chest wall to expand effectively. High-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask alone may not be sufficient to support the patient's respiratory needs. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's confusion is likely due to inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, not fluid resuscitation. Choice B is incorrect because cyanosis is a late sign of respiratory distress and should not be solely relied upon for management decisions. Choice C is incorrect as tachypnea is a compensatory mechanism and not a definitive management strategy for a flail chest.
You are on-scene with a patient suspected of taking a large amount of meperidine hydrochloride. Which of the following interventions may be effective in reversing the adverse effects of the ingested medication?
A. Activated charcoal
B. Atropine
C. Romazicon
D. Naloxone
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Naloxone. Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose by competitively binding to opioid receptors. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse the adverse effects of meperidine overdose and restore normal respiratory function in the patient.
Activated charcoal (A) is used to absorb toxins in the gastrointestinal tract but is not effective in reversing the effects of opioids. Atropine (B) is an anticholinergic drug used to treat bradycardia and not effective in reversing opioid overdose. Romazicon (C) is a benzodiazepine antagonist and not effective in reversing opioid overdose.
In summary, naloxone is the correct intervention for reversing the adverse effects of meperidine hydrochloride overdose due to its opioid antagonist properties, while the other choices are not effective in this specific scenario
This level of prevention would be directed at minimizing complications of disease:
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Illness prevention
Correct answer:
Tertiary prevention focuses on minimizing complications and optimizing function once a disease is established, such as rehabilitation or managing chronic conditions to prevent further deterioration. In nursing, this might involve wound care to prevent infection in a diabetic patient or physical therapy post-stroke. Primary prevention, like vaccinations, aims to prevent disease onset entirely, not address existing conditions. Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment, such as screenings, to halt progression, not minimize complications. Illness prevention is vague and not a standard term, often overlapping with primary efforts, but lacks the specificity of tertiary care's focus on existing disease. Tertiary prevention aligns with the question's intent, emphasizing interventions that reduce the impact of an already-diagnosed condition, ensuring patients maintain the highest possible quality of life despite their illness, a key aspect of holistic nursing practice.
A patient with a head injury has admission vital signs of blood pressure 128/68, pulse 110, and respirations 26. Which of these vital signs, if taken 1 hour after admission, will be of most concern to the nurse?
A. Blood pressure 160/50, pulse 55, respirations 14
B. Blood pressure 110/70, pulse 120, respirations 30
C. Blood pressure 148/78, pulse 112, respirations 28
D. Blood pressure 150/72, pulse 60, respirations 32
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. The significant change in blood pressure from 128/68 to 160/50, along with a significant decrease in pulse from 110 to 55, and a decrease in respirations from 26 to 14, indicates potential signs of deteriorating condition. A drop in blood pressure paired with a significant decrease in pulse and respirations could signify shock, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Option B shows an increase in pulse and respirations, but the blood pressure remains within an acceptable range. Option C shows a slight increase in blood pressure with minimal changes in pulse and respirations. Option D shows a moderate decrease in pulse and a significant increase in respirations, but the blood pressure remains relatively stable.
In summary, option A is the most concerning as it shows a combination of significant changes in blood pressure, pulse, and respirations, indicating a potential deterioration in the patient's condition.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 18 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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