LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 71

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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 71

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The nurse is using a Doppler device. This tool is primarily used to:

  1. A. Assess joint range of motion.
  2. B. Detect faint pulses.
  3. C. Magnify low-pitched sounds.
  4. D. Examine the retina.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Detect faint pulses.

The correct answer is B: Detect faint pulses. A Doppler device is used to detect and amplify weak pulses, making it an essential tool in assessing blood flow and circulation. It uses sound waves to detect movement, such as blood flow through vessels, and converts them into audible signals. This helps healthcare providers identify and monitor pulses in various parts of the body. A, C, and D are incorrect choices because: A: Assess joint range of motion. This is typically done using physical assessment techniques, such as observation and measurement, not with a Doppler device. C: Magnify low-pitched sounds. Doppler devices do not magnify sounds but rather detect and amplify specific types of movement-related signals. D: Examine the retina. Retinal examination is usually performed using specialized instruments like ophthalmoscopes, not Doppler devices.

Question 2

A family has presented at a community mental health clinic. The mother reports that the children ages 8 and 10 are 'not doing well since their father died three months ago.' The nurse demonstrates an understanding of the goals of a family mental health assessment when initially:

  1. A. Assessing the mother's ability to provide physical care for her children.
  2. B. Encouraging the mother to discuss the problems with the children's teachers.
  3. C. Observing how the children interact with both their mother and with each other.
  4. D. Arranging for the family members to attend age-appropriate grief management groups.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Arranging for the family members to attend age-appropriate grief management groups.

The correct answer is D because arranging for the family members to attend age-appropriate grief management groups aligns with the goal of assessing and addressing the family's mental health needs following a significant loss. This approach recognizes the impact of the father's death on the children and the mother, providing them with support and coping strategies. It acknowledges the importance of addressing grief and promoting healthy coping mechanisms within the family unit. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the family's mental health needs in the context of grief and loss. Assessing the mother's ability to provide physical care, encouraging discussions with teachers, and observing interactions are important but do not specifically target the emotional and psychological impact of the father's death on the family.

Question 3

A nurse is caring for a young adult patient whose medical history includes an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. This deficiency predisposes the patient to what health problem?

  1. A. Pulmonary edema
  2. B. Lobular emphysema
  3. C. Cystic fibrosis (CF)
  4. D. Empyema
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Lobular emphysema

Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency predisposes young adults to lobular emphysema, a form of COPD, by impairing lung protection. AAT, a protease inhibitor, neutralizes neutrophil elastase, which otherwise degrades alveolar elastin unchecked in deficiency states, causing early-onset emphysema, often sans smoking. This destruction yields air trapping and hyperinflation, hallmarks of lobular emphysema, typically in the lower lobes. Pulmonary edema, fluid in alveoli, stems from cardiac failure or ARDS, not AAT loss. Cystic fibrosis involves CFTR mutations, not AAT, affecting mucus viscosity. Empyema, pleural infection, isn't linked to AAT deficiency. The nurse's recognition of this genetic risk confirmed by AAT levels guides monitoring (e.g., spirometry) and counseling (e.g., avoiding smoke), critical for delaying progression in this rare, inherited condition.

Question 4

When looking at a model for evidence-based practice, what is the final step of the process?

  1. A. Formulating a clinical question
  2. B. Searching the literature
  3. C. Appraising the literature
  4. D. Evaluating practice change
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Evaluating practice change

Evidence-based practice (EBP) follows a systematic process to integrate research into care, with evaluating practice change as the final step. It begins with formulating a clinical question to identify the issue, followed by searching and appraising the literature to gather and assess evidence. Implementing the change comes next, but evaluation critically appraising the change's impact, like improved patient outcomes or cost-effectiveness completes the cycle. This step ensures the intervention works in practice, not just theory, by analyzing data like recovery rates or patient feedback. It's a reflective process, allowing nurses to refine or discard changes, ensuring EBP remains dynamic and patient-focused. This closure distinguishes EBP from mere research application, embedding continuous improvement into nursing practice for sustained quality and safety.

Question 5

Which of the following patients would be eligible to receive the influenza vaccine?

  1. A. The patient who is taking care of her son with human immunodeficiency virus
  2. B. The patient who is pregnant
  3. C. The patient with an egg allergy
  4. D. The child who is 18 months old
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — The patient who is pregnant

Step-by-step rationale: 1. Pregnant individuals are recommended to receive the influenza vaccine to protect both themselves and the unborn baby. 2. Pregnancy increases the risk of severe complications from influenza. 3. The vaccine is safe for pregnant women and can be given at any stage of pregnancy. 4. Influenza vaccination during pregnancy also provides passive immunity to the newborn. Summary of other choices: A: The patient who is taking care of her son with HIV - While this patient may benefit from the vaccine, it is not a direct indication for eligibility. C: The patient with an egg allergy - Most influenza vaccines are grown in eggs, making this patient ineligible for those vaccines. D: The child who is 18 months old - Children under 6 months old are too young for the influenza vaccine, and 18 months is not within the recommended age range.

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Question 6

A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. A. Respiratory depression can occur within 7 minutes after the morphine is administered.
  2. B. The morphine will peak within a few minutes.
  3. C. Withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate less than 16/min.
  4. D. Administer the morphine over 2 minutes.
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Question 7

A client has been admitted with disorganized type schizophrenia. The nurse observes blunted affect and social isolation. He occasionally curses or calls another client a 'jerk' without provocation. The nurse asks the client how he is feeling, and he responds, 'Everybody picks on me. They frobitz me.' The nurse would assess 'frobitz' as:

  1. A. Circumstantial speech
  2. B. Loose associations
  3. C. Evidence of delusional thinking
  4. D. A neologism
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Question 8

Which of the following is a potential fire hazard in a facility?

  1. A. Overloaded electrical socket
  2. B. Recycling container for plastic materials
  3. C. Locked housekeeping supply closet
  4. D. Clean empty ashtray
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Question 9

One step a nursing assistant should take when preparing to make a bed is to

  1. A. Gather linen in the opposite order of placement on the bed
  2. B. Gather linen in the exact order of placement on the bed
  3. C. Carry clean linen close to the body to protect it from bacteria
  4. D. Move clean linen from one resident room to another when needed
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Question 10

A public health nurse found that out of the 70 people who ate the potato salad at a school picnic, 63 developed symptoms of food poisoning. Which of the following best describes the attack rate?

  1. A. 63%
  2. B. 70%
  3. C. 90%
  4. D. 100%
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Question 11

In performing an examination of a 3-year-old child with a suspected ear infection, the nurse would:

  1. A. Omit the otoscopic examination if the child has a fever.
  2. B. Pull the ear up and back before inserting the speculum.
  3. C. Ask the mother to leave the room while examining the child.
  4. D. Perform the otoscopic examination at the end of the assessment.
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Question 12

Which of the following items best explains the short action of diazepam in inducing unconsciousness for a laparoscopic hernia repair?

  1. A. Rapid metabolism of the drug within the central nervous system
  2. B. Rapid excretion of the drug by the kidneys
  3. C. Redistribution of the drug from the central nervous system to other tissues
  4. D. Biotransformation of the drug into inactive metabolites
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Question 13

What is an important role of the nurse with regard to residents opposing plans to establish a group home or residential facility in their neighborhood?

  1. A. To provide information to correct misinformation related to stereotypes of persons with mental illnesses
  2. B. To persuade neighborhood residents that mentally ill people need safe, affordable, and desirable housing
  3. C. To provide for the safety and security of the neighborhood
  4. D. To ensure the security of persons in the group home
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Question 14

What procedure does a nurse use to assess the inguinal ring of a male patient for a hernia?

  1. A. Asks the patient to lie supine, lifts the scrotum, asks the patient to take a deep breath, and observes for a bulge
  2. B. Asks the patient to lean over the examination table, inserts a gloved finger into the lower part of the scrotum into the inguinal canal, asks the patient to cough, and palpates for a bulge
  3. C. Asks the patient to lie on the side not being assessed, inserts a gloved finger into the lower part of the scrotum into the inguinal canal, asks the patient to exhale completely, and palpates for a bulge
  4. D. Asks the patient to stand, inserts a gloved finger into the lower part of the scrotum into the inguinal canal, asks the patient to cough, and palpates for a bulge
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Question 15

The Association of Perioperative Registered Nurses' (AORN) Standards of Perioperative Nursing Practice that describes nursing interactions, interventions, and activities with patients falls under which standards category?

  1. A. Evidence-based
  2. B. Process
  3. C. Outcome
  4. D. Structural
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 71 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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