LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 70

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The correct answer is D: Legitimate power. The coordinator of the quality group demonstrates legitimate power by inviting the CNL to join the committee based on their official role or position. Legitimate power is derived from a person's formal authority within an organization. In this scenario, the coordinator has the authority to invite individuals to join the committee due to their position. Choice A: Coercive power is based on fear and threats, which is not demonstrated by the coordinator inviting the CNL to join the group. Choice B: Laissez-faire power is a hands-off approach where the leader is not actively involved in decision-making, which is not the case here. Choice C: Transformational power involves inspiring and motivating others towards a common goal, but it is not evident in the coordinator's simple act of inviting the CNL to join the group.

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The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. By doing so, the nurse can address their emotions professionally and seek guidance on how to manage the situation effectively. This approach allows the nurse to receive support and potentially gain insights on how to navigate interactions with the manipulative client. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues causing the reluctance and can impact the quality of care provided. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client directly about negative behaviors may escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario; it is essential to address the nurse's feelings first before considering behavior modification plans.

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The correct answer is A: Placenta. The placenta is a temporary organ that connects a mammalian mother to its foetus by facilitating the exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products between the mother and the developing baby. It also produces hormones necessary for pregnancy. Explanation of other choices: B: Chorion - The chorion is a membrane that surrounds the embryo and contributes to the formation of the placenta, but it is not the organ that directly connects the mother to the foetus. C: Endometrium - The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus where implantation of the fertilized egg occurs, but it is not the organ that connects the mother to the foetus. D: None of the above - This choice is incorrect as the placenta is indeed the temporary organ that serves as the connection between the mother and the foetus in mammalian reproduction.

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The nursing code of ethics emphasizes that a nurse's primary loyalty is to the client, prioritizing their needs and well-being above conflicting interests from family, physicians, or hospital policies. This principle stems from the duty to advocate for the client's autonomy, safety, and health, ensuring decisions align with their best interests. When family or physician preferences diverge, the nurse must assess and support what benefits the client most, even if it means navigating tension. Hospital policies guide practice but don't override client-centered care. This ethical stance empowers nurses to act as client advocates, fostering trust and upholding professional integrity. For instance, if a family pushes for an intervention the client refuses, the nurse defends the client's right to choose, reinforcing that their needs come first in ethical practice.

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The correct answer is A: "GCS" (Glasgow Coma Scale). During the primary survey, assessing the patient's level of consciousness using the Glasgow Coma Scale is crucial for identifying any potential head injuries or altered mental status due to trauma. This assessment helps determine the severity of the patient's condition and guides further management. B: Cervical spine x-ray is not indicated during the primary survey as it is more appropriate in the secondary survey to evaluate for potential cervical spine injuries. C: TT-administration (tetanus toxoid) is important for management but not a priority during the primary survey. It can be addressed later in the treatment process. D: Blood alcohol level is not crucial during the primary survey for immediate life-saving interventions. It can be considered in the secondary survey for further evaluation.

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The correct answer is D: Sports/task-specific activities. This phase is crucial as it focuses on integrating the individual back into their specific sport or activity, ensuring they are fully prepared to perform at their pre-injury level. This phase includes sport-specific drills, simulations, and progressive training to mimic the demands of the sport. It helps in enhancing performance, improving skills, and building confidence. A: Resolving pain and inflammation - This is usually addressed in the early stages of rehabilitation to promote healing and reduce discomfort. B: Restoring ROM - This phase focuses on improving range of motion and flexibility, typically done before the strengthening phase. C: Strengthening - While important, this phase precedes the sports-specific activities phase and aims to rebuild strength and stability in the injured area.

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The most likely diagnosis for the 50-year-old man with weight loss, night sweats, coughing up blood, and a mass in the left upper lobe of the lung is lung cancer (Choice C). Here's the rationale: 1. Weight loss, night sweats, and fatigue are common symptoms of advanced cancer. 2. History of smoking is a significant risk factor for developing lung cancer. 3. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) is a classic symptom of lung cancer. 4. Chest X-ray showing a mass in the left upper lobe is indicative of a tumor. 5. Pneumonia (Choice A) typically presents with fever, productive cough, and infiltrates on imaging. 6. Tuberculosis (Choice B) usually presents with chronic cough, weight loss, night sweats, and upper lobe infiltrates. 7. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (Choice D) is characterized by progressive difficulty breathing, cough, and sputum production.

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Diminished breath sounds in COPD, from airway narrowing or hyperinflation (e.g., emphysema), signal reduced ventilation, prompting the nurse to monitor for dyspnea and hypoxemia. Air trapping and obstruction lower air entry, audible as faint sounds, risking oxygen desaturation (hypoxemia) and shortness of breath (dyspnea) core COPD features. Kyphosis (spinal curvature) and clubbing (finger deformity) occur in advanced stages but aren't immediate concerns from diminished sounds. Sepsis and pneumothorax are complications, not direct sequelae of this finding sepsis needs systemic signs, pneumothorax absent sounds on one side. Bradypnea (slow breathing) contradicts COPD's tachypnea; pursed-lip breathing is a coping strategy, not a risk. Monitoring dyspnea and hypoxemia via symptoms and oximetry guides timely intervention (e.g., oxygen), per COPD care standards.

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The correct answer is C: To explore a subject, idea, experience, or relationship. This therapeutic communication technique aims to encourage the client to express their thoughts, feelings, and needs freely. By asking the client how they can be helped, the nurse is inviting the client to discuss their concerns and preferences, allowing for a deeper exploration of their situation. This can help establish trust, build rapport, and facilitate a better understanding of the client's perspective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Reframing the client's thoughts is not the primary purpose of this communication technique. B: Putting the client at ease is important, but not the main goal of asking this question. D: While showing active listening is essential, the main purpose of this question is to encourage the client to open up and share their concerns.

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The correct answer is B (Nitrous oxide 0.7; sevoflurane 0.6) for the minimum alveolar concentration for general anesthesia. The minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhaled anesthetic at which 50% of patients do not respond to a standard surgical stimulus. In this case, a higher MAC value indicates a lower potency of the anesthetic. Therefore, higher MAC values for both nitrous oxide and sevoflurane mean that lower concentrations of these agents are needed to achieve general anesthesia. Choice B has higher MAC values for both drugs compared to the other options, making it the correct answer for providing appropriate general anesthesia with the minimum concentration of the drugs. Choices A, C, and D have lower MAC values for one or both drugs, which would require higher concentrations and potentially lead to inadequate anesthesia.