You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse reports to the interdisciplinary team that an antisocial patient lies to other patients, verbally abuses a patient with Alzheimer's disease, flatters his primary nurse, and is detached and superficial during counseling sessions. Which behavior should be the priority focus of limit setting?
A. Lying to other patients
B. Flattering the nursing staff
C. Verbally abusing other patients
D. Superficiality during counseling
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Verbally abusing other patients
The priority focus of limit setting should be on verbally abusing other patients (Choice C) because it directly harms others and creates a hostile environment. This behavior is not only detrimental to the well-being of other patients but also disrupts the therapeutic milieu. Limiting this behavior is crucial to ensure the safety and emotional health of all patients in the care setting. Lying to other patients (Choice A), flattering the nursing staff (Choice B), and being superficial during counseling sessions (Choice D) are concerning behaviors as well, but they do not pose an immediate risk to the safety and well-being of others in the same way that verbal abuse does. It is important to address all inappropriate behaviors, but the priority should be given to the behavior that has the most significant negative impact on the therapeutic environment.
Question 2
The nurse is reviewing the surgical consent with the patient during preoperative education and finds the patient does not understand what procedure will be completed. What is the nurse's best next step?
A. Notify the health care provider about the patient's question.
B. Explain the procedure that will be completed.
C. Continue with preoperative education.
D. Ask the patient to sign the form.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Notify the health care provider about the patient's question.
The correct answer is A: Notify the health care provider about the patient's question. The nurse's best next step is to ensure that the patient fully understands the procedure before proceeding with obtaining consent. By notifying the healthcare provider, the nurse can facilitate clear communication between the provider and the patient to address any misunderstandings and clarify information. This step promotes patient autonomy, informed decision-making, and patient safety.
Summary:
- B: Explaining the procedure directly may not address the underlying issue of the patient's lack of understanding.
- C: Continuing preoperative education without addressing the patient's misunderstanding may lead to further confusion.
- D: Asking the patient to sign the form without resolving the misunderstanding would not align with informed consent principles.
Question 3
A patient with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in an acutely disturbed, violent state. He is given several doses of haloperidol (Haldol) and becomes calm and approachable. During rounds the nurse notices the patient has his head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position. His lower jaw is thrust forward and he appears severely anxious. The patient has _____, and the nurse should _____.
A. A dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin)
B. Tardive dyskinesia"¦seek a change in the drug or its dosage
C. Waxy flexibility"¦continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs
D. Akathisia"¦administer PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl) PO
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — A dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin)
The correct answer is A: A dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin). This patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute dystonia, a extrapyramidal side effect of haloperidol. Dystonic reactions are characterized by sustained muscle contractions causing abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication that helps alleviate these symptoms by blocking the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Administering benztropine is the appropriate treatment for acute dystonia.
Summary of other choices:
B: Tardive dyskinesia"¦seek a change in the drug or its dosage - Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect that occurs after long-term antipsychotic use, not acutely like in this case.
C: Waxy flexibility"¦continue treatment with antipsychotic drugs - Waxy flexibility is a symptom of catatonia, not a side effect of antipsychotic medications
Question 4
The primary purpose of the ciliated mucous membrane in the nose is to:
A. Warm the inhaled air.
B. Filter out dust and bacteria.
C. Filter coarse particles from inhaled air.
D. Facilitate the movement of air through the nares.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Filter out dust and bacteria.
The correct answer is B: Filter out dust and bacteria. The ciliated mucous membrane in the nose acts as a physical barrier to trap and remove harmful particles like dust and bacteria from the inhaled air. Here's the rationale:
1. The cilia trap particles: The cilia in the mucous membrane sweep back and forth, capturing dust and bacteria in the mucus.
2. Mucus removes particles: The sticky mucus traps the particles, preventing them from entering the respiratory system.
3. Prevents infections: By filtering out harmful particles, the mucous membrane helps protect the respiratory system from infections.
4. Other choices are incorrect: A is incorrect as the primary function is not to warm the air. C is incorrect as it focuses on coarse particles only. D is incorrect as it does not specifically address the filtration function of the mucous membrane.
Question 5
A client has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, and a nurse is initiating a protective environment. Which precaution should the nurse plan for this client?
A. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction in the area.
B. Place the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients.
C. Allow the client to visit public areas freely.
D. Ensure the client does not need any special precautions.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction in the area.
For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to maintain a protective environment to prevent infections. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially if there is construction in the area, helps reduce the risk of exposure to harmful pathogens. This precaution is essential as the client's immune system is compromised post-transplant. Placing the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients (choice B) would increase the risk of infections as it exposes the client to a higher pathogen load. Allowing the client to visit public areas freely (choice C) is not recommended due to the higher risk of exposure to infections. Ensuring the client does not need any special precautions (choice D) is incorrect because clients post allogeneic stem cell transplant require protective measures to prevent complications.
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Question 6
A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) reports a decrease in exertional dyspnea. What should the nurse assess to evaluate treatment effectiveness?
A. Heart rate remains below 100 beats per minute.
B. Chest x-ray shows improved lung fields.
C. Blood pressure remains stable.
D. Patient's reported exertional dyspnea decreases.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because assessing the patient's reported exertional dyspnea directly evaluates the symptom that the patient is experiencing. Improvement in exertional dyspnea indicates that the treatment is effective in managing the patient's condition. It is essential to focus on the patient's subjective experience to determine treatment effectiveness.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because:
A: Heart rate below 100 beats per minute may or may not be relevant to assessing exertional dyspnea improvement. It does not directly evaluate the patient's reported symptom.
B: Improved lung fields on a chest x-ray may suggest some improvement but do not directly correlate with the patient's symptom of exertional dyspnea.
C: Stable blood pressure is important but does not directly assess the patient's reported symptom of exertional dyspnea.
Which of the following statements is true of how a nursing assistant should care for a resident with a telemetry pack?
A. The NA should not get the unit or electrodes wet.
B. The NA should not monitor vital signs.
C. The NA should not report cracked skin because that is normal due to the electrode placement.
D. The NA should make sure that the electrodes hang loosely from the resident's chest.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. A nursing assistant should not get the unit or electrodes wet when caring for a resident with a telemetry pack to prevent damage to the equipment and ensure accurate monitoring of the resident's heart activity. Wet electrodes can interfere with the transmission of signals and lead to inaccurate readings. It is important to maintain the integrity of the equipment to provide proper care for the resident.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring vital signs is an essential part of caring for a resident with a telemetry pack. Choice C is incorrect because cracked skin is not normal and should be reported to prevent skin irritation or infection. Choice D is incorrect because the electrodes should be securely attached to the resident's chest to ensure accurate readings, not hanging loosely.
A client with pulmonary fibrosis is being treated with supplemental oxygen. What is the primary goal of oxygen therapy in this condition?
A. To cure the underlying disease.
B. To reduce the work of breathing.
C. To eliminate the need for medications.
D. To prevent the development of respiratory alkalosis.
Correct answer:
The primary goal of oxygen therapy in pulmonary fibrosis is to reduce the work of breathing. Pulmonary fibrosis causes stiffening and scarring of the lung tissue, making breathing more difficult. Supplemental oxygen helps improve oxygen levels in the blood, reducing the effort required to breathe. This can alleviate symptoms such as shortness of breath and improve the client's quality of life.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Oxygen therapy does not cure pulmonary fibrosis. It only helps manage symptoms.
C: Oxygen therapy does not eliminate the need for medications in pulmonary fibrosis. Medications may still be necessary to manage the underlying condition.
D: Oxygen therapy does not aim to prevent respiratory alkalosis in pulmonary fibrosis. It primarily focuses on improving oxygenation and reducing the work of breathing.
A 32-year-old client with an admitting diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia has been mute and motionless for 2 days. The priority nursing diagnosis is:
A. Risk for deficient fluid volume
B. Impaired physical mobility
C. Impaired social interaction
D. Ineffective coping
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Risk for deficient fluid volume. The priority nursing diagnosis in this case is to address the client's physical needs to ensure their safety and well-being. The client's mutism and immobility put them at risk for dehydration and malnutrition. By prioritizing the risk for deficient fluid volume, the nurse can address the immediate physiological needs of the client.
Choice B: Impaired physical mobility is incorrect because while the client is motionless, the immediate concern is addressing the risk of dehydration.
Choice C: Impaired social interaction is incorrect as addressing social interaction is not the priority when the client's physical needs are not being met.
Choice D: Ineffective coping is incorrect because the client's presentation is indicative of a more urgent physical need for hydration and nutrition.
You are responding to a possible assault call. You choose to park down the block from the house, as police have not yet made the scene safe. However, you see what looks to be a patient in distress in the upper story window. What would be the safest approach in this situation?
A. Wait for responding police to control the situation and say that it is safe for EMS
B. Wait for police to arrive, then grab your gear and go in with police to treat the patient
C. Drive up to the driveway to get a better view of the patient's condition
D. Head into the house to treat the patient since he could be critically hurt
Correct answer:
The correct approach is to wait for responding police to control the situation and confirm it is safe for EMS. This is the safest option because entering a potentially unsafe scene without police clearance could put the EMS provider at risk. The safety of the EMS provider is paramount, and responding to a scene without police presence could escalate the situation and endanger both the provider and the patient. Waiting for police to secure the scene ensures a safe environment for providing medical care.
Summary of incorrect choices:
B: Waiting for police to arrive and then entering with them does not guarantee scene safety.
C: Driving up to the driveway exposes the EMS provider to potential danger without police clearance.
D: Heading into the house without police presence is extremely risky and violates protocol for safety and scene control.
Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that:
A. It is dose to dose less potent
B. It has a shorter plasma half life
C. It does not produce an active metabolite
D. It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: C) Carbimazole does not produce an active metabolite.
Rationale:
1. Carbimazole is a prodrug that is converted to its active form, methimazole, in the body.
2. Methimazole is the active compound responsible for inhibiting thyroid hormone production.
3. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, directly inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis without needing conversion.
4. Therefore, Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that it requires metabolic activation to its active form, methimazole, and does not produce a different active metabolite like propylthiouracil does.
Summary:
A) Incorrect: Carbimazole is not dose to dose less potent compared to propylthiouracil; potency can vary based on individual response.
B) Incorrect: Carbimazole actually has a longer plasma half-life compared to propylthiouracil.
D) Incorrect: Carbim
If a burn patient is splinted in a comfortable position for grafted burns to heal, the patient is at risk for which of the following complications?
A. Tendon rupture
B. Skin breakdown
C. Mechanical falls
D. Wound contracture
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Wound contracture. When a burn patient is splinted in a comfortable position for grafted burns to heal, there is a risk of wound contracture due to prolonged immobility. Wound contracture refers to the tightening and shrinking of the skin and underlying tissues, leading to restricted joint movement and functional impairment. This complication can result in long-term disability and decreased quality of life for the patient.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Tendon rupture is not a typical complication of splinting a burn patient in a comfortable position.
B: Skin breakdown may occur if the splint is too tight or if there is excessive pressure on certain areas, but it is not the primary risk associated with this scenario.
C: Mechanical falls are unrelated to the positioning of the burn patient for graft healing.
The preferred site for intramuscular injection in children over 7 months and adults because the area does not contain large nerves or blood vessels is the:
A. Deltoid Site
B. Ventrogluteal Site
C. Dorsogluteal Site
D. Vastus Lateralis Site
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Ventrogluteal Site. This site is preferred for intramuscular injections because it has a thick muscle mass and is located away from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury or complications. Steps to determine the correct answer: 1. Eliminate the Dorsogluteal Site (C) due to proximity to the sciatic nerve and superior gluteal artery, increasing the risk of nerve damage or arterial puncture. 2. Eliminate the Deltoid Site (A) which has a smaller muscle mass and is closer to the radial nerve and brachial artery, posing a higher risk of nerve injury or vascular puncture. 3. Eliminate the Vastus Lateralis Site (D) as it is often used in infants and small children due to the large muscle mass, but the ventrogluteal site is preferred in older children and adults for decreased risk of nerve and vascular injury.
Microorganisms that can grow in the presence or absence of Oxygen are called
A. Obligate anaerobes
B. Strict anaerobes
C. Facultative anaerobes
D. Obligate aerobes
Correct answer:
Facultative anaerobes are microorganisms capable of thriving with or without oxygen, adapting their metabolism accordingly. 'Facultative anaerobes,' is correct because it describes organisms like Escherichia coli, which use aerobic respiration when oxygen is present and switch to fermentation or anaerobic respiration when it's absent. 'Obligate anaerobes,' require an oxygen-free environment, as oxygen is toxic to them. 'Strict anaerobes,' is a synonym for obligate anaerobes, also unable to tolerate oxygen. 'Obligate aerobes,' depend entirely on oxygen for growth, incapable of surviving without it. The flexibility of facultative anaerobes, documented in microbiology (e.g., Brock Biology of Microorganisms), distinguishes them from the rigid requirements of the other options, making C the precise answer for organisms that can handle both conditions.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 76 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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