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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 65

LPN exams · fundamentals

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 65

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

What is the best explanation for the way evidence-based practice (EBP) has changed the way nursing care is delivered?

  1. A. Nursing care now incorporates research studies into client care
  2. B. Nursing care reflects specialty knowledge
  3. C. Nursing care now uses EBP as a means of ensuring quality care
  4. D. Nursing care reflects economic concerns
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Nursing care now uses EBP as a means of ensuring quality care

Evidence-based practice (EBP) has transformed nursing by making it a means of ensuring quality care, integrating current research, clinical expertise, and patient values into a systematic approach. Unlike simply incorporating studies, EBP evaluates and applies them to improve outcomes like reducing infection rates through proven protocols ensuring consistency and safety. Specialty knowledge enhances care but isn't EBP's core shift. Pre-EBP, nursing relied on tradition or economics, but now it prioritizes quality via evidence, not cost alone. This evolution empowers nurses to deliver precise, effective interventions, like using ginger for nausea based on reviews, elevating care beyond habit. EBP's focus on quality over mere incorporation or economics marks a paradigm shift, aligning nursing with scientific rigor and patient-centered excellence across diverse settings.

Question 2

A group activity on an inpatient psychiatric unit is scheduled to begin at 1000. A patient, who was recently discharged from U.S. Marine Corps, arrives at 0945. Which analysis best explains this behavior?

  1. A. The patient wants to lead the group and give directions to others.
  2. B. The patient wants to secure a chair that will be close to the group leader.
  3. C. The military culture values timeliness. The patient does not want to be late.
  4. D. The behavior indicates feelings of self-importance that the patient wants others to appreciate.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — The military culture values timeliness. The patient does not want to be late.

The correct answer is C: The military culture values timeliness. The patient does not want to be late. The patient's behavior aligns with the values instilled in the U.S. Marine Corps, where punctuality is highly emphasized. This explains why the patient arrived early for the group activity, as being late goes against the core values of the military culture. A: The patient arriving early does not necessarily indicate a desire to lead the group. B: Securing a chair close to the group leader is not the most likely explanation for the patient's early arrival. D: The patient's behavior is more likely motivated by adherence to military values rather than seeking appreciation for self-importance. In summary, choice C is the best analysis as it directly relates the patient's behavior to their military background and the importance of timeliness in that culture.

Question 3

Which of the following phrases best describes hospitals today?

  1. A. focus on chronic illnesses
  2. B. focus on acute care needs
  3. C. primary care centers
  4. D. voluntary agencies
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — focus on acute care needs

The correct answer is B: focus on acute care needs. Hospitals today primarily cater to providing immediate and intensive medical care for patients with severe or urgent health issues. This is evident in their specialized departments such as emergency rooms, intensive care units, and surgical suites. Hospitals are equipped with advanced technologies and specialized medical professionals to address acute conditions promptly. Choice A (focus on chronic illnesses) is incorrect as hospitals mainly deal with acute conditions. Choice C (primary care centers) is incorrect as primary care centers provide routine and preventive care, whereas hospitals focus on more complex and urgent medical needs. Choice D (voluntary agencies) is incorrect as hospitals are healthcare institutions that may operate as public, private, or non-profit entities, rather than voluntary agencies.

Question 4

Which educational intervention by the nurse would be most effective in promoting self-care for a childbearing client in their second trimester who is diagnosed with gestational diabetes?

  1. A. Providing a list of local support groups for pregnant clients with gestational diabetes
  2. B. Teaching the client how to monitor blood glucose levels at home
  3. C. Giving the client a strict diet plan to follow that limits sugars
  4. D. Scheduling weekly checkups to closely monitor their condition
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Teaching the client how to monitor blood glucose levels at home

The correct answer is B because teaching the client how to monitor blood glucose levels at home empowers them to actively manage their condition. This intervention promotes self-care by enabling the client to track their glucose levels regularly and make informed decisions about their diet and lifestyle. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in managing gestational diabetes effectively. A: Providing a list of local support groups may be beneficial for emotional support but does not directly address self-care through blood glucose monitoring. C: Giving a strict diet plan is important, but it is not as effective as teaching the client to monitor their own blood glucose levels. D: Scheduling weekly checkups is helpful for monitoring progress, but it does not promote the same level of self-care as teaching the client to monitor their own blood glucose levels.

Question 5

A client is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for the first time. What is the correct sequence for its use?

  1. A. Shake the inhaler, exhale fully, press the inhaler while inhaling deeply, hold breath for 10 seconds.
  2. B. Press the inhaler, inhale quickly, exhale fully, shake the inhaler.
  3. C. Shake the inhaler, inhale quickly, press the inhaler, exhale slowly.
  4. D. Exhale fully, press the inhaler, shake the inhaler, inhale deeply.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Shake the inhaler, exhale fully, press the inhaler while inhaling deeply, hold breath for 10 seconds.

The correct sequence for using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for the first time is A: Shake the inhaler, exhale fully, press the inhaler while inhaling deeply, hold breath for 10 seconds. Rationale: 1. Shake the inhaler: This helps to mix the medication properly. 2. Exhale fully: Emptying the lungs before inhaling ensures better medication delivery. 3. Press the inhaler while inhaling deeply: This allows the medication to reach deep into the lungs. 4. Hold breath for 10 seconds: Holding the breath allows the medication to be absorbed effectively. Summary of other choices: B: Incorrect because inhaling quickly may lead to improper medication delivery. C: Incorrect because pressing the inhaler before inhaling may result in less effective medication delivery. D: Incorrect because shaking the inhaler after pressing it may disrupt the medication dispersion.

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Question 6

During the first few years after menopause, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are normally extremely high. A 56-year-old woman completed menopause 3 years ago. However, she is found to have low levels of FSH in her blood. Which of the following is the best explanation for this finding?

  1. A. She has been receiving hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone since she completed menopause
  2. B. Her adrenal glands continue to produce estrogen
  3. C. Her ovaries continue to secrete estrogen
  4. D. She took birth control pills for 20 years before menopause
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Question 7

A 6-month-old infant involved in a vehicle crash with respiratory distress and unsuccessful intubation. The most appropriate procedure is:

  1. A. "Perform needle cricothyroidotomy with jet insufflation"
  2. B. Administer heliox and racemic epinephrine
  3. C. Perform nasotracheal intubation
  4. D. Perform surgical cricothyroidotomy
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Question 8

Why is respiration rate usually counted directly after taking the pulse rate, while the fingers are still on the wrist?

  1. A. It is less work for the nursing assistant to count respirations right after taking the pulse.
  2. B. People may breathe more quickly if they know they are being observed.
  3. C. The chest will not rise and fall if the rate is not counted immediately.
  4. D. The respiration rate will be different if the nursing assistant waits to take it.
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Question 9

An older adult client tells the nurse that blockage of qi in one of the body's meridians is causing severe headaches. The health care provider has diagnosed migraines and has prescribed a triptan drug. Which action would be most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

  1. A. Suggest that the prescribed medicine may stimulate the flow of qi
  2. B. Explain the vasoconstrictive and serotonin-moderating action of triptan
  3. C. Instruct the client to take as many doses as needed for relief
  4. D. Caution the client that the headaches will grow worse if the client fails to take the medication
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Question 10

What are the nursing interventions for a patient with neutropenia?

  1. A. Monitor for signs of infection and administer antibiotics
  2. B. Isolate the patient and provide a low-microbial diet
  3. C. Monitor vital signs and avoid unnecessary invasive procedures
  4. D. Encourage the patient to engage in social activities
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Question 11

A 37-year-old male client was admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) 2 days ago with an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following actions would breach the client confidentiality?

  1. A. The CCU nurse gives a verbal report to the nurse on the telemetry unit before transferring the client to that unit
  2. B. The CCU nurse notifies the on-call physician about a change in the client's condition
  3. C. The emergency department nurse calls up the latest electrocardiogram results to check the client's progress.
  4. D. At the client's request, the CCU nurse updates the client's wife on his condition
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Question 12

A 34-year-old man is brought to the ED after being pinned to the wall of a building by a cement truck. He is in obvious shock, and has deformities and marked swelling of both thighs. Although no open wounds are present, his shock:

  1. A. "Cannot be explained without concomitant pelvic fracture"
  2. B. Signifies a loss of approximately 15%
  3. C. Is consistent with blood loss from bilateral femoral fracture
  4. D. Will likely be reversed if appropriate traction splints are applied
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Question 13

The nurse working in the community is assigned to the care of several clients. Which client(s) may require assistance to overcome barriers to accessing adequate care?

  1. A. A student entering a local university
  2. B. A client who is a migrant and works on a farm
  3. C. An older adult client living independently
  4. D. A client who has been unemployed for 6 months
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Question 14

The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?

  1. A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
  2. B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
  3. C. Position legs flat against the bed.
  4. D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
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Question 15

A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

  1. A. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client's medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse.
  2. B. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation.
  3. C. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client's durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client's care.
  4. D. A nurse discusses a client's status with the physical therapist who is caring for the client at the bedside.
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 65 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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