You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client with a history of prostate cancer is in the clinic and reports new onset of severe low back pain. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Assess the client's gait and balance.
B. Ask the client about the ease of urine flow.
C. Document the report completely.
D. Inquire about the client's job risks.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Assess the client's gait and balance.
Prostate cancer commonly metastasizes to bones, especially the spine, causing spinal cord compression a medical emergency that can lead to paralysis if untreated. New, severe low back pain in this context suggests possible metastasis, making gait and balance assessment the most appropriate action to check for neurological deficits (e.g., weakness, unsteady gait) indicating compression. This prioritizes client safety, as falls or worsening paralysis could result without intervention. Asking about urine flow relates to prostate obstruction, less urgent here given the pain's prominence. Documentation is essential but passive without assessment. Job risks might contribute to back pain but are secondary to cancer history. Assessing gait and balance first ensures rapid escalation if needed, reflecting oncology nursing's focus on detecting metastatic complications early.
Question 2
Which statement reflects a nurse leader using confrontation?
A. Let's talk this out now'
B. I'll handle it later'
C. You're both fine, relax'
D. One of you is wrong'
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Let's talk this out now'
The correct answer is A: "Let's talk this out now." This statement reflects a nurse leader using confrontation effectively by addressing issues directly and in a timely manner. Confrontation involves addressing conflicts or concerns openly and constructively to facilitate resolution. By choosing this option, the nurse leader demonstrates assertiveness and a willingness to engage in difficult conversations for the benefit of the team.
Choice B: "I'll handle it later" suggests avoidance of the issue, which does not align with effective confrontation. Choice C: "You're both fine, relax" minimizes the conflict and does not address the underlying issues, avoiding confrontation. Choice D: "One of you is wrong" is accusatory and does not promote a collaborative approach to conflict resolution, lacking the empathetic and constructive elements of effective confrontation.
Question 3
Which of the following is considered to be the greatest single modifiable risk factor for cardiac disease?
A. Obesity
B. Hypertension
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Smoking
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Smoking
The correct answer is D: Smoking. Smoking is considered the greatest single modifiable risk factor for cardiac disease due to its direct negative impact on cardiovascular health. Smoking increases the risk of heart disease by damaging blood vessels, raising blood pressure, increasing heart rate, and promoting the buildup of fatty deposits in the arteries. Quitting smoking has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of developing heart disease.
A: Obesity is a significant risk factor for heart disease, but smoking has a greater impact on cardiovascular health.
B: Hypertension is a major risk factor for heart disease, but smoking has a more significant impact on cardiovascular health.
C: Hyperlipidemia (high cholesterol) is a significant risk factor for heart disease, but smoking is considered the greatest single modifiable risk factor for cardiac disease.
Question 4
A nurse has been administering a drug to a patient intramuscularly (IM). The physician discontinued the IM dose and wrote an order for the drug to be given orally. The nurse notices that the oral dosage is considerably higher than the parenteral dose and understands that this is due to:
A. Passive diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Glomerular filtration
D. First-pass effect
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — First-pass effect
The first-pass effect involves drugs that are absorbed from the small intestine directly into the portal venous system, which delivers the drug molecules to the liver. Once in the liver, enzymes break the drug into metabolites, which may become active or may be deactivated and readily excreted from the body. A large percentage of the oral dose is usually destroyed and never reaches tissues. Oral dosages account for the phenomenon to ensure an appropriate amount of the drug in the body to produce a therapeutic action. Passive diffusion is the major process through which drugs are absorbed into the body. Active transport is a process that uses energy to actively move a molecule across a cell membrane and is often involved in drug excretion in the kidney. Glomerular filtration is the passage of water and water-soluble components from the plasma into the renal tubule.
Question 5
It is best described as a systematic, rational method of planning and providing nursing care for individuals, families, group and community
A. Assessment
B. Nursing Process
C. Diagnosis
D. Implementation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Nursing Process
The nursing process (B) is a comprehensive, systematic framework used by nurses to deliver patient-centered care. It encompasses five steps: assessment (data collection), diagnosis (identifying health problems), planning (setting goals and interventions), implementation (carrying out the plan), and evaluation (assessing outcomes). This definition matches the description in the question as a rational, organized method applicable to individuals, families, groups, and communities. Assessment (A) is only the first step, not the entire method. Diagnosis (C) is a single phase focused on problem identification, while implementation (D) is the action phase, neither encompassing the full scope described. The nursing process integrates critical thinking and evidence-based practice to ensure holistic care, making B the accurate answer reflecting its broad, systematic nature.
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Question 6
The health care provider prescribes topical 5-FU for a patient with actinic keratosis on the left cheek. The nurse should include which statement in the patient’s instructions?
A. 5-FU will shrink the lesion to prepare for surgical excision.
B. Your cheek area will be eroded and it will take several weeks to heal.
C. You may develop nausea and anorexia, but good nutrition is important during treatment.
D. You will need to avoid crowds because of the risk for infection caused by chemotherapy.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Your cheek area will be eroded and it will take several weeks to heal.
Rationale:
1. 5-FU is a topical chemotherapy agent used to treat actinic keratosis by causing erosion of the affected skin area.
2. Erosion of the skin is an expected side effect of 5-FU treatment and indicates that the medication is working to treat the actinic keratosis.
3. Healing after the erosion process can take several weeks as the skin regenerates.
4. This statement provides accurate information about the expected effects of 5-FU treatment on the patient's cheek area.
Summary:
- Option A is incorrect as 5-FU is not used to shrink the lesion for surgical excision but to treat actinic keratosis topically.
- Option C is incorrect as nausea and anorexia are not common side effects of topical 5-FU treatment for actinic keratosis.
- Option D is incorrect as
A highly emotional client presents at an outpatient clinic appointment wearing flamboyant attire, spiked heels, and theatrical makeup. Which personality disorder should the nurse associate with these assessment data?
A. Compulsive personality disorder
B. Schizotypal personality disorder
C. Histrionic personality disorder (HPD)
D. Manic personality disorder
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Histrionic personality disorder (HPD). This disorder is characterized by attention-seeking behavior, emotional overreaction, and dramatic appearance. In this case, the client's flamboyant attire, spiked heels, and theatrical makeup align with the attention-seeking and dramatic features of HPD.
A: Compulsive personality disorder is characterized by perfectionism and rigidity, not flamboyant or attention-seeking behavior.
B: Schizotypal personality disorder involves social isolation and eccentric behavior, not attention-seeking or dramatic appearance.
D: Manic personality disorder is a mood disorder characterized by elevated mood and increased energy, not necessarily flamboyant attire or theatrical makeup.
Therefore, the best fit for the client's presentation is Histrionic personality disorder based on the assessment data provided.
What is correct about taking blood pressure readings?
A. The nurse should make sure that the cuff is deflated fully
B. then immediately start the second reading for the same client.
C. The nurse should release the valve carefully so that the pressure decreases at the rate of 2-3 mmHg per second.
D. The cuff should be large enough to wrap around the upper arm of the adult client 1 cm above the brachial artery.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
1. The cuff size should be appropriate to ensure accurate readings.
2. A cuff that is too small can result in falsely elevated readings.
3. A cuff that is too large can lead to falsely low readings.
4. Placing the cuff 1 cm above the brachial artery ensures proper placement for accurate measurements.
Other Choices:
A: The nurse should make sure that the cuff is deflated fully - Incorrect. The cuff should be inflated fully for accurate readings.
B: then immediately start the second reading for the same client - Incorrect. It is important to wait a few minutes between readings to allow the blood vessels to recover.
C: The nurse should release the valve carefully so that the pressure decreases at the rate of 2-3 mmHg per second - Incorrect. The pressure should be released at a steady rate, not specific to 2-3 mmHg per second.
A clinic nurse is performing assessment on a client who is being seen in the clinic for the first time. When asking about the client's medication history, the client tells the nurse that he takes nateglinide (Starlix). The nurse then questions the client about the presence of which disorder that is treated with this medication?
A. hypothyroidism
B. insomnia
C. type 2 diabetes mellitus
D. renal failure
Correct answer:
Nateglinide is an oral antidiabetic medication used to manage type 2 diabetes mellitus, a condition where the body resists insulin or doesn't produce enough to regulate blood sugar. It belongs to the meglitinide class, stimulating rapid insulin release from pancreatic beta cells in response to meals, helping control postprandial glucose spikes. This distinguishes it from treatments for hypothyroidism, which involves thyroid hormone replacement, or insomnia, managed with sedatives. Renal failure might require different interventions, like dialysis, not nateglinide. The nurse's questioning about type 2 diabetes aligns with the drug's purpose, as it's prescribed when diet and exercise alone fail, targeting a specific metabolic disorder. This assessment ensures the medication matches the client's condition, guiding further care and education about diabetes management.
A man has come in to the clinic for a skin assessment because he is worried he might have skin cancer. During the skin assessment the nurse notices several areas of pigmentation that look greasy, dark, and 'stuck on' his skin. Which is the best prediction?
A. Senile lentigines, which do not become cancerous
B. Actinic keratoses, which are precursors to basal cell carcinoma
C. Acrochordons, which are precursors to squamous cell carcinoma
D. Seborrheic keratoses, which do not become cancerous
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Seborrheic keratoses, which do not become cancerous. Seborrheic keratoses are benign skin growths that are typically greasy, dark, and have a 'stuck on' appearance. They are not cancerous and do not pose a risk of developing into skin cancer. This is important to reassure the patient and alleviate their concerns.
A: Senile lentigines are also known as age spots and are benign pigmented spots that do not typically become cancerous.
B: Actinic keratoses are precancerous lesions that can develop into squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated.
C: Acrochordons, also known as skin tags, are benign growths and not precursors to squamous cell carcinoma.
In summary, the other choices are incorrect because they either refer to benign conditions that do not become cancerous (A and C) or precancerous lesions that can progress to skin cancer (
A 55-year-old woman presents with difficulty walking and reports a feeling of 'pins and needles' in her legs. She has a history of diabetes mellitus. On examination, she has decreased sensation in the lower extremities and absent ankle reflexes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Spinal cord compression
D. Parkinson's disease
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Peripheral neuropathy. Given the patient's age, symptoms, history of diabetes mellitus, decreased sensation in lower extremities, and absent ankle reflexes, peripheral neuropathy is the most likely diagnosis. Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes and presents with sensory symptoms like 'pins and needles,' decreased sensation, and loss of reflexes. Multiple sclerosis (B) typically presents with symptoms that involve the central nervous system and often presents with visual disturbances and muscle weakness. Spinal cord compression (C) typically presents with symptoms like weakness and sensory changes in specific dermatomal patterns, which are not consistent with the patient's presentation. Parkinson's disease (D) presents with motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, which are not seen in this patient.
A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of pursed-lip breathing. Which of the following explanations should the nurse provide?
A. To increase oxygen intake
B. To promote relaxation
C. To strengthen respiratory muscles
D. To improve carbon dioxide elimination
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: To improve carbon dioxide elimination. Pursed-lip breathing involves exhaling through pursed lips to create back pressure, helping to keep airways open longer and improving carbon dioxide elimination. This technique reduces the work of breathing and can be beneficial for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or other respiratory conditions.
Explanation for other choices:
A: To increase oxygen intake - Pursed-lip breathing primarily helps with exhaling, not increasing oxygen intake.
B: To promote relaxation - While pursed-lip breathing can promote relaxation by slowing down breathing and reducing anxiety, its primary purpose is related to respiratory function.
C: To strengthen respiratory muscles - Pursed-lip breathing mainly focuses on improving breathing efficiency rather than strengthening respiratory muscles.
The nurse is careful to monitor a patient's cardiac output because this helps the nurse to determine
A. Peripheral extremity circulation.
B. Oxygenation requirements.
C. Cardiac arrhythmias.
D. Ventilation status.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Oxygenation requirements. Monitoring cardiac output helps determine the amount of blood the heart is pumping, which directly affects the delivery of oxygen to tissues. This information is crucial in assessing the patient's oxygenation status and ensuring adequate oxygen supply to meet the body's needs.
A: Peripheral extremity circulation - While cardiac output can impact peripheral circulation, it is not the primary reason for monitoring cardiac output.
C: Cardiac arrhythmias - Monitoring cardiac output may indirectly help in identifying arrhythmias, but it is not the main purpose of monitoring cardiac output.
D: Ventilation status - Cardiac output and ventilation status are related but distinct parameters. Monitoring cardiac output focuses on assessing the heart's ability to pump blood, not the lungs' ability to exchange gases.
A client has a platelet count of 9800/mm^3. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Assess the client for calf pain, warmth, and redness.
B. Instruct the client to call for help to get out of bed.
C. Obtain cultures as per the facility's standing policy.
D. Place the client on protective isolation precautions.
Correct answer:
A platelet count of 9800/mm^3 is severely low (normal is 150,000-450,000/mm^3), indicating thrombocytopenia, a common chemotherapy side effect that heightens bleeding risk. The most appropriate action is instructing the client to call for help before getting out of bed to prevent falls or injuries that could trigger uncontrolled bleeding, such as intracranial hemorrhage. Assessing for calf pain, warmth, and redness checks for thrombosis, which is unrelated to low platelets thrombosis risk rises with high counts. Obtaining cultures relates to infection, tied to low white cells, not platelets. Protective isolation is for neutropenia, not thrombocytopenia. This safety-focused intervention minimizes physical risk, crucial in oncology where low platelets demand proactive prevention to avoid life-threatening bleeds, empowering the client while ensuring nurse oversight.
Which action by the nurse will be the most important for preventing skin impairment in a mobile patient with local nerve damage?
A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
B. Limit caloric and protein intake.
C. Turn the patient every 2 hours.
D. Assess for pain during a bath.
Correct answer:
The most important action for preventing skin impairment in a mobile patient with local nerve damage is to assess for pain during a bath. Assessing pain during a bath helps in evaluating sensory nerve function by checking for touch, pain, heat, cold, and pressure. This assessment is crucial in identifying areas of potential skin breakdown and implementing preventive measures. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) is not directly related to preventing skin impairment in this context. Limiting caloric and protein intake (Choice B) is not pertinent to skin impairment prevention for a mobile patient with local nerve damage. While turning the patient every 2 hours (Choice C) is a good practice for preventing pressure ulcers, in this case, assessing for pain during a bath is more directly related to preventing skin impairment associated with nerve damage.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 66 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
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