You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which client's vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?
A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.
Question 2
A nurse manager is trying to manage a conflict between a staff nurse and a medical student. Which statement by the manager would the nursing supervisor interpret as following the rules of basic mediation
A. Both parties need to grow up. They are so immature'
B. The problem is partially the fault of both parties'
C. I stopped the conversation frequently to have the parties summarize what was being said'
D. They just went on and on. I had to stop the discussion because I was out of time'
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — I stopped the conversation frequently to have the parties summarize what was being said'
The correct answer is C. The statement "I stopped the conversation frequently to have the parties summarize what was being said" aligns with the rules of basic mediation. This approach promotes active listening, ensures understanding, and helps prevent misunderstandings. By stopping the conversation and having the parties summarize, the manager can facilitate clear communication and identify areas of agreement or disagreement. This process encourages mutual understanding and can help in resolving conflicts effectively.
Choice A is incorrect as it involves a judgmental and unprofessional statement that does not contribute to conflict resolution. Choice B is also incorrect as it does not demonstrate a proactive approach to managing the conflict. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping a discussion due to time constraints can escalate tensions and hinder the resolution process.
Question 3
A 62-year-old construction worker presents with chronic cough and occasional shortness of breath for almost a year. He has smoked two packs a day for 45 years. On examination, his chest diameter seems enlarged. Breath sounds are decreased throughout all lobes. Rhonchi are heard over all lung fields.
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Asthma
D. Pneumonia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Given the patient's history of smoking, chronic cough, shortness of breath, and decreased breath sounds, COPD is the most likely diagnosis. COPD is characterized by irreversible airflow obstruction due to chronic inflammation and damage to the lungs, commonly caused by smoking. The enlarged chest diameter and decreased breath sounds suggest hyperinflation and air trapping, which are typical in COPD. Rhonchi can be heard due to airway inflammation and mucus production.
Incorrect choices:
A: Spontaneous pneumothorax - Unlikely as there is no sudden onset of chest pain or breathlessness.
C: Asthma - Less likely in this case as asthma typically presents with wheezing and may have a history of allergies.
D: Pneumonia - Less likely given the chronic nature of the symptoms and absence of fever or focal chest signs.
Question 4
The nurse and the student nurse are caring for two different patients on the medical-surgical unit. One patient is in airborne precautions, and one is in contact precautions. The nurse explains to the student different interventions for care. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A. Dispose of supplies to prevent the spread of microorganisms.
B. Wash hands before entering and leaving both of the patients’ rooms.
C. Be consistent in nursing interventions since there is only one difference in the precautions.
D. Apply the knowledge the nurse has of the disease process to prevent the spread of microorganisms.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Dispose of supplies to prevent the spread of microorganisms.
The correct answer is A: Dispose of supplies to prevent the spread of microorganisms. This is crucial in preventing the transmission of infections in patients under different precautions. Airborne precautions require proper disposal of contaminated supplies to prevent the spread of pathogens through the air. On the other hand, contact precautions necessitate proper disposal of supplies to prevent direct transmission through physical contact. Incorrect choices: B is incorrect because handwashing is essential but does not specifically address the differing needs of patients under different precautions. C is incorrect because consistency in nursing interventions may not be appropriate when different precautions are in place. D is incorrect as knowledge of the disease process is important but may not directly relate to preventing the spread of microorganisms through contaminated supplies.
Question 5
Initial intervention for the client should be to:
A. Encourage to verbalize his fears as much as he wants.
B. Assist him to find meaning to his feelings in relation to his past.
C. Establish trust through a consistent approach.
D. Accept her fears without criticizing.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Establish trust through a consistent approach.
Correct Answer: C - Establish trust through a consistent approach.
Rationale:
1. Establishing trust is essential in the initial stages of counseling to create a safe and supportive environment.
2. Trust helps the client feel comfortable sharing their thoughts and feelings openly.
3. Consistency in approach builds predictability and reliability, which fosters a sense of security for the client.
4. By focusing on trust-building first, the counselor can then effectively address the client's fears in a supportive and understanding manner.
Summary:
A: Encouraging the client to verbalize fears without establishing trust may lead to them feeling vulnerable or judged.
B: Helping the client find meaning in feelings is important but should come after trust is established.
D: Accepting fears without criticism is important, but trust-building should come first for effective support.
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Question 6
The susceptibility of an individual to infection DOES NOT depend on
A. Immune status
B. Racial status
C. Nutritional status
D. Metabolic disorder
Correct answer:
Susceptibility to infection hinges on factors that directly affect the body's ability to resist pathogens. 'Racial status,' is correct as the factor that does not typically influence susceptibility, as race is a social construct with no direct biological link to immune response, per modern medical consensus (e.g., WHO). 'Immune status,' is a key determinant, as a weakened immune system (e.g., HIV) increases infection risk. 'Nutritional status,' matters, as malnutrition impairs immune function (e.g., vitamin deficiencies). 'Metabolic disorder,' like diabetes, heightens susceptibility by disrupting immune responses. Unlike these physiological factors, racial status lacks evidence as a direct causal factor in infection risk, though socioeconomic disparities tied to race might indirectly affect health. Its exclusion from clinical determinants of susceptibility makes B the correct answer.
The correct answer is D: hormones. The human reproductive system is regulated by hormones such as estrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and others. Hormones play a crucial role in controlling the menstrual cycle, sperm production, ovulation, and other reproductive processes. They help in maintaining the proper functioning of the reproductive organs and influencing sexual characteristics.
A: restriction enzymes are involved in DNA manipulation and have no direct role in regulating the human reproductive system.
B: antigens are substances that trigger an immune response, not involved in regulating the reproductive system.
C: complex carbohydrates are a source of energy and not directly involved in regulating the human reproductive system.
In summary, hormones are the primary regulators of the human reproductive system, influencing various processes essential for reproduction.
A. Seasonal respiratory conditions and family history of emphysema
B. Age, high fat diet and sedentary lifestyle
C. History of cardiovascular and autoimmune conditions
D. Indoor and outdoor air pollution
Correct answer:
COPD risk factors center on chronic airway damage. Seasonal respiratory conditions may exacerbate, not cause, COPD, though family history of emphysema suggests genetic risk (e.g., alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency), but it's less primary than exposure. Age is a factor as lung function declines naturally, but high fat diet and sedentary lifestyle are more linked to obesity or cardiovascular disease, not directly COPD. Cardiovascular and autoimmune histories don't drive COPD etiology smoking and pollution do. Indoor (e.g., biomass smoke) and outdoor air pollution (e.g., particulates) are major irritants, causing inflammation and irreversible airflow limitation, per Deravin and Anderson (2019). Pollution's role is critical globally, especially in occupational or urban settings, outweighing secondary factors by directly triggering the chronic inflammatory cascade defining COPD pathogenesis.
The correct answer is B: Stimulate uterine contractions. Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a key role in initiating and maintaining labor by stimulating uterine contractions. It acts on the smooth muscles of the uterus to promote the rhythmic contractions necessary for childbirth. Oxytocin also helps with the ejection of milk during breastfeeding but its primary role in childbirth is to stimulate uterine contractions.
Incorrect choices:
A: Inhibit uterine contractions - This is incorrect as oxytocin actually stimulates, not inhibits, uterine contractions.
C: Increase milk production - While oxytocin does play a role in milk ejection during breastfeeding, its primary role in childbirth is to stimulate uterine contractions.
D: Prepare the cervix for dilation - While oxytocin may contribute to cervical dilation during labor, its primary role is in stimulating uterine contractions.
Glucose is added to anti-diarrhoeal solution because:
A. It tastes sweet
B. It increases absorption of amino acids
C. It increases absorption of sodium
D. All of above
Correct answer:
Oral rehydration solutions (ORS) combat dehydration in diarrhea by enhancing fluid absorption. Glucose in ORS doesn't merely improve taste (choice A), though palatability helps compliance. It doesn't directly increase amino acid absorption (choice B), as its role isn't protein-related. Instead, glucose increases sodium absorption (choice C) via the sodium-glucose cotransport mechanism in the gut, where glucose facilitates sodium uptake, driving water absorption osmotically. Choice D, 'all of the above,' is incorrect because A and B are not primary functions. C is the correct answer, reflecting glucose's critical physiological role in ORS efficacy. Nurses administering ORS must understand this mechanism to explain its importance to caregivers, ensuring proper use in diarrhea management, especially in children, where dehydration can escalate rapidly without this sodium-glucose synergy.
The best position for a client for thoracentesis is:
A. Upright leaning sideward
B. Orthopneic
C. Prone
D. Supine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Upright leaning sideward. This position allows for better access to the pleural space between the ribs, minimizing the risk of injury to surrounding structures. The upright position helps to expand the lung and diaphragm, making it easier to locate the fluid pocket for thoracentesis. Leaning sideways helps to ensure gravity assists in pooling the fluid away from the needle insertion site.
Choice B: Orthopneic is not the best position for thoracentesis as the patient is sitting upright and leaning forward, which may not be as effective in accessing the fluid pocket.
Choice C: Prone position is incorrect because the patient is lying face down, making it difficult to access the pleural space in the back.
Choice D: Supine position is also incorrect as the patient is lying flat on their back, making it challenging to access the pleural space effectively.
The nurses in a labor and delivery unit are concerned about the high incidence of cesarean deliveries at their facility and initiate an internal study. Which is the most likely condition the nurses will recognize as a contributor to the rate of cesarean births?
A. The facility has a high rating for managing high-risk pregnancies.
B. Policies and parameters for cesarean need to be reviewed and refined.
C. Community education about the advantages of vaginal birth is deficient.
D. The incidence of maternal requests for cesarean delivery is increasing.
Correct answer:
Step 1: Maternal requests for cesarean delivery are a significant contributor to the high incidence of cesarean births.
Step 2: Maternal requests may stem from various factors such as fear of labor pain, convenience, or personal preferences.
Step 3: Nurses can address this issue by educating women on the risks and benefits of cesarean versus vaginal delivery.
Step 4: By understanding and addressing maternal requests, the facility can potentially lower the cesarean delivery rate.
Summary:
- Choice A is incorrect as high-risk pregnancies do not directly contribute to the rate of cesarean births.
- Choice B is incorrect as reviewing cesarean policies alone may not address the underlying issue of maternal requests.
- Choice C is incorrect as community education, while important, may not directly impact the rate of cesarean deliveries as compared to addressing maternal requests.
The physician prescribes haloperidol (Haldol), a first-generation antipsychotic drug, for a patient with schizophrenia who displays delusions, hallucinations, apathy, and social isolation. Which symptoms should most be monitored to evaluate the expected improvement from this medication?
A. Talking to himself, belief that others will harm him
B. Flat affect, avoidance of social activities, poor hygiene
C. Loss of interest in recreational activities, alogia
D. Impaired eye contact, needs help to complete tasks
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because the symptoms of delusions and hallucinations are key indicators of improvement in schizophrenia with antipsychotic treatment. These symptoms directly relate to the patient's perception of reality and are core features of the disorder. Monitoring these symptoms provides objective evidence of the medication's effectiveness in addressing the patient's psychotic symptoms.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they mainly indicate negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as flat affect, social withdrawal, and cognitive deficits. While monitoring these symptoms is important for assessing overall functioning and quality of life, they are not the primary target of improvement with antipsychotic medications. Symptoms like delusions and hallucinations are considered primary targets for evaluating the efficacy of antipsychotic treatment in schizophrenia.
The human body contains approximately 640 muscles, a widely accepted estimate in anatomy reflecting skeletal muscles primarily, which vary slightly by individual due to small accessory muscles. This number excludes smooth and cardiac muscles' microscopic units but focuses on distinct, named skeletal muscles enabling movement. Fewer, like 340, undercounts the extensive network across limbs, torso, and face. Higher figures like 860 might exaggerate by including minor variants or non-skeletal types, but 640 aligns with standard texts. It accounts for paired muscles (e.g., biceps) and smaller ones (e.g., in the ear), balancing precision with practicality. This figure underscores the muscular system's complexity, supporting diverse functions from walking to facial expressions, and provides a reliable benchmark for anatomical study, distinguishing it from overly broad or narrow estimates.
What nursing action is appropriate when obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling catheter to prevent infection?
A. Use sterile gloves when obtaining urine.
B. Open the drainage bag and pour out the urine.
C. Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and get urine.
D. Aspirate urine from the tubing port using a sterile syringe.
Correct answer:
Aspirating urine from the tubing port with a sterile syringe is the appropriate action for obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling catheter. This maintains the closed system's integrity, minimizing infection risk by avoiding exposure to external contaminants. The port is designed for sterile sampling, ensuring the specimen reflects bladder contents accurately for testing. Using sterile gloves aids asepsis but isn't the complete action; it supports the procedure, not defines it. Opening the drainage bag introduces bacteria, risking contamination and infection. Disconnecting the catheter breaks the sterile circuit, increasing urinary tract infection likelihood contrary to best practice. Aspiration via the port, paired with aseptic technique, upholds infection control standards, ensuring patient safety and reliable diagnostic results, making it the optimal nursing action.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 55 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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