You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Mrs. Caperlac has been diagnosed with hypertension 10 years ago. Since then, she has maintained a low-sodium, low-fat diet to control her blood pressure. This practice is viewed as:
A. Cultural belief
B. Personal belief
C. Health belief
D. Superstitious belief
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Health belief
Mrs. Caperlac's low-sodium, low-fat diet reflects a health belief personal convictions about behaviors that impact health, grounded in evidence linking diet to blood pressure control. This aligns with the Health Belief Model, where individuals adopt practices based on perceived benefits (e.g., managing hypertension). It's not a cultural belief, which stems from group traditions, as no cultural context is specified. A personal belief might involve individual preferences (e.g., disliking salt), but her practice ties directly to a health outcome, not mere opinion. Superstitious beliefs rely on irrational assumptions (e.g., avoiding black cats), unrelated to her evidence-based dietary choice. Her decade-long adherence demonstrates a deliberate health-focused strategy, informed by medical advice, making health belief the most fitting classification for her proactive management of hypertension.
Question 2
A patient with schizophrenia has been stabilized in the Crisis Center and is about to be discharged. He will be living with his family, but the family knows nothing about the patient's illness, its treatment, or the role they can play in his recovery. Which activity would be most beneficial for the family to attend?
A. Psychoanalytic group
B. Psychoeducational group
C. Individual counseling
D. Family therapy
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Psychoeducational group
The correct answer is B: Psychoeducational group. This option is most beneficial as it provides education and information to the family about the patient's illness, treatment options, and ways they can support his recovery. It helps them understand the challenges the patient faces and equips them with practical strategies to assist in his recovery process.
A: Psychoanalytic group focuses on exploring unconscious patterns of behavior and may not provide the necessary education and tools for the family to support the patient effectively.
C: Individual counseling is focused on the patient and may not involve the family members in understanding the illness and their role in the patient's recovery.
D: Family therapy involves the whole family in therapy sessions, but may not specifically focus on educating them about schizophrenia and its treatment, which is crucial for their support.
Question 3
A client is contemplating retirement and expresses uncertainty about wanting to retire. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. Let's talk about how the change in your job status will affect you.
B. Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?
C. What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?
D. Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Let's talk about how the change in your job status will affect you.
Choosing option A, 'Let's talk about how the change in your job status will affect you,' is the most appropriate response in this scenario. By discussing how retirement might affect the client, the nurse can address the client's concerns and emotions about the impending change. Option B, 'Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?' is not the best response as it focuses solely on financial aspects and does not address the client's emotional readiness for retirement. Option C, 'What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?' is more open-ended and may not address the immediate concerns of the client expressing uncertainty. Option D, 'Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?' assumes the client is certain about retiring and focuses on activities rather than addressing the client's feelings of uncertainty.
Question 4
This is an example of stretch reflex stimulated by passive muscle movement
A. patellar reflex
B. tendon reflex
C. flexor reflex
D. ipsilateral reflex
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — patellar reflex
A stretch reflex occurs when a muscle is passively stretched, triggering a rapid contraction to resist the stretch, mediated by muscle spindles and a monosynaptic reflex arc. The classic example is the knee-jerk response, where tapping the patellar tendon stretches the quadriceps, causing an immediate kick. This reflex tests spinal nerve function and is widely recognized in clinical settings. A tendon reflex, while related to tension, typically involves Golgi tendon organs inhibiting contraction, not initiating it. A flexor reflex is a polysynaptic withdrawal response to pain, not passive stretch. An ipsilateral reflex occurs on the same side but isn't specific to stretch. The knee-jerk response perfectly exemplifies a stretch reflex due to its simplicity and direct muscle activation, making it the best fit, as it's a foundational concept in neurophysiology for assessing reflex integrity.
Question 5
The main function of progesterone in the menstrual cycle is to CHAPTER 4: REPRODUCTION COMPILED BY: ZAIDI YAACOB UNAUTORIED DUPLICATION IS PROBIHITED, FOR THE CIRCULATION OF BIO095 STUDENTS ONLY
A. stimulate development of corpus luteum .
B. stimulate development of the follicl
C. maintain endometrium lining.
D. trigger ovulation.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — maintain endometrium lining.
The correct answer is C because progesterone's main function in the menstrual cycle is to maintain the endometrium lining. Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum after ovulation, and it helps prepare the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized egg. This hormone ensures that the endometrium is thick and ready to support a potential pregnancy.
Choice A is incorrect because progesterone is not responsible for stimulating the development of the corpus luteum; instead, it is produced by the corpus luteum itself.
Choice B is incorrect because progesterone does not stimulate the development of the follicle. The follicle is primarily influenced by estrogen during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.
Choice D is incorrect because ovulation is triggered by a surge in luteinizing hormone (LH), not progesterone. LH surge causes the release of the egg from the follicle.
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Question 6
In what sequence should the nurse prepare the dose of insulin for a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mg/dl and is receiving a sliding scale dose of short-acting insulin before breakfast?
A. Clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab, withdraw the correct dose of insulin, and then inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial.
B. Inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, withdraw the correct dose of insulin, and then clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab.
C. Withdraw the correct dose of insulin, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, and then clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab.
D. Clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, and then withdraw the correct dose of insulin.
Correct answer:
The correct sequence for preparing a dose of insulin involves ensuring proper aseptic technique. First, clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab to prevent contamination. Second, withdraw the correct dose of insulin to be administered. Lastly, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial to maintain proper pressure for withdrawing the medication. This sequence ensures the medication is prepared safely and accurately. Choice A is correct as it follows this sequence. Choices B, C, and D present incorrect sequences that may compromise patient safety by not following the correct aseptic technique. Choice B injects air into the vial before withdrawing insulin, which is incorrect. Choice C reverses the order of withdrawing insulin and injecting air. Choice D withdraws the insulin before injecting air, which can affect the pressure inside the vial and lead to inaccurate dosing.
When observing a patient's verbal and nonverbal communication, the nurse notices a discrepancy. Which statement is true regarding this situation? The nurse should:
A. Ask someone who knows the patient well to help interpret this discrepancy.
B. Focus on the patient's verbal message, and try to ignore the nonverbal behaviors.
C. Try to integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and then interpret them as an average.
D. Focus on the patient's nonverbal behaviors, because these are often more reflective of a patient's true feelings.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. When observing a discrepancy between a patient's verbal and nonverbal communication, focusing on the patient's nonverbal behaviors is crucial because nonverbal cues often provide more accurate insights into a person's true feelings. Nonverbal communication, such as body language and facial expressions, can convey emotions and thoughts that may not be expressed verbally. By paying attention to these cues, the nurse can better understand the patient's underlying emotions and concerns. In contrast, focusing solely on the verbal message (Choice B) may lead to missing important cues, and integrating verbal and nonverbal messages as an average (Choice C) may dilute the significance of nonverbal cues. Asking someone who knows the patient well (Choice A) could be helpful but may not provide as direct and immediate insights as focusing on the patient's nonverbal behaviors.
To be an effective change agent for wellness, the nurse must:
A. Skip breakfast
B. Drink caffeinated beverages
C. Be sedentary
D. Consume a healthy diet
Correct answer:
As a change agent for wellness, the nurse must model behaviors that promote health, like consuming a healthy diet rich in nutrients, low in processed foods to reduce disease risk and enhance vitality. This aligns with lifestyle modification skills that alleviate stress and bolster resilience, key to advocating wellness in clients. Skipping breakfast disrupts metabolism, increasing fatigue, while caffeinated beverages, though stimulating, may heighten anxiety if overused. A sedentary lifestyle contradicts wellness, raising chronic illness risks. By eating healthily, the nurse exemplifies practical, sustainable habits like balanced meals supporting immunity credibly inspiring clients. This personal commitment reinforces teaching, such as advising heart-healthy diets, making the nurse a trusted guide in shifting clients toward wellness, a core nursing role in prevention and health promotion.
A 54-year-old man had been receiving carbamazepine since he was diagnosed with complex partial seizures 5 years earlier. The drug was fully effective in controlling the seizures. Blockade of which of the following molecular targets most likely mediated the therapeutic effect of the drug in the patient's disease?
A. Acetylcholine receptors
B. Glutamate receptors
C. Monoamine receptors
D. Na+ channels
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Na+ channels. Carbamazepine is an antiepileptic drug that works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, thus reducing neuronal excitability and preventing the generation of abnormal electrical discharges that lead to seizures. This mechanism of action is particularly effective in controlling partial seizures.
A: Acetylcholine receptors - Carbamazepine does not directly interact with acetylcholine receptors.
B: Glutamate receptors - Carbamazepine does not directly interact with glutamate receptors.
C: Monoamine receptors - Carbamazepine does not directly interact with monoamine receptors.
In summary, the therapeutic effect of carbamazepine in controlling seizures is mediated by its blockade of Na+ channels, which reduces neuronal excitability. Other choices are incorrect as carbamazepine does not target acetylcholine, glutamate, or monoamine receptors.
Your adult female postpartum patient delivered her newborn with the assistance of her husband five minutes prior to your arrival on the scene. The infant's Apgar score is 10, and the baby seems to be fine. However, the mother continues to bleed heavily after an adequate fundal massage and encouraging the infant to breastfeed. Her current heart rate is 125 bpm; her blood pressure is 108/60, and she is breathing 22 times a minute with an SpO2 of 97. After ensuring a second infant is not present, which of the following interventions would medical command most likely recommend?
A. Continue fundal massage, and pack the vagina with sterile ABD or trauma pads
B. Administer lactated Ringer's solution run wide open using macro-drip tubing under pressure
C. Administer a fluid bolus of 1,000 mL of normal saline, and transport the patient in the Trendelenburg position
D. Administer oxytocin infusion (1 unit per 100 mL of lactated Ringer's solution) at 20 to 30 gtts/min (micro-drip tubing) depending on bleeding severity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Administer oxytocin infusion at 20 to 30 gtts/min depending on bleeding severity. Oxytocin is a uterotonic agent that helps control postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions, which can help stop the bleeding. In this scenario, the mother is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage despite initial interventions. Administering oxytocin can help control the bleeding and prevent further complications.
Choice A is incorrect because packing the vagina with pads is not the recommended first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because administering lactated Ringer's solution under pressure is not the appropriate intervention for postpartum hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect because Trendelenburg position is not recommended for managing postpartum hemorrhage and can potentially worsen the situation by increasing blood flow to the head.
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
A. Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.
B. Assess blood pressure and heart rate at least every 4 hours.
C. Measure calf girth to evaluate edema in the affected leg.
D. Encourage mobilization to prevent pulmonary embolism.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is to 'Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.' This is the most crucial intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on a heparin protocol. Heparin, being an anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding as a side effect. Therefore, close monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, is essential to prevent severe complications. While assessing blood pressure and heart rate (Choice B) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Measuring calf girth (Choice C) may help evaluate edema but is not as vital as observing for bleeding complications. Encouraging mobilization (Choice D) is beneficial for preventing complications like pulmonary embolism, but in this scenario, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk associated with anticoagulant therapy.
While administering normal saline to an adult patient experiencing hypovolemia, the medical command physician recommends the administration of warm normal saline, even though it is not a cold environment. Why would a physician (MCP) recommend warmed normal saline be administered to an adult hypovolemia patient?
A. Warm saline has a better affinity to oxygen transport to the cells
B. To help maintain a normal body temperature during hypovolemia
C. Warm saline will require less energy to enter the systemic circulation
D. It will increase the amount of cardiac output more rapidly
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: To help maintain a normal body temperature during hypovolemia.
Rationale:
1. When a patient is experiencing hypovolemia, their body is already under stress, potentially leading to a decrease in body temperature.
2. Administering warm normal saline helps prevent further cooling of the body and aids in maintaining a normal body temperature.
3. Maintaining normal body temperature is crucial for proper physiological functions and overall patient well-being during hypovolemia.
Summary of other choices:
A: Warm saline's temperature does not affect its affinity for oxygen transport.
C: The energy required for warm saline to enter circulation is not significantly different from room temperature saline.
D: Warm saline may slightly affect cardiac output due to temperature, but the primary reason for warming saline is to maintain body temperature in hypovolemia.
A patient who involved in a workplace accident suffered a penetrating wound of the chest that led to acute respiratory failure. What goal of treatment should the care team prioritize when planning this patients care?
A. Facilitation of long-term intubation
B. Restoration of adequate gas exchange
C. Attainment of effective coping
D. Self-management of oxygen therapy
Correct answer:
Acute respiratory failure (ARF) from a penetrating chest wound likely causing pneumothorax or hemothorax disrupts ventilation and oxygenation, making restoration of adequate gas exchange the care team's priority. This goal addresses the underlying pathophysiology: air or blood in the pleural space collapses the lung, impairing oxygen uptake and CO2 elimination. Immediate interventions (e.g., chest tube, oxygen) aim to re-expand the lung and stabilize ABGs, preventing hypoxia and hypercapnia, which are life-threatening. Long-term intubation may result but isn't the initial focus resolving the cause often avoids it. Coping and self-management are secondary, relevant post-stabilization, as survival hinges on gas exchange. The nurse's role in monitoring respiratory status and supporting interventions (e.g., thoracostomy) aligns with this urgent, evidence-based priority in trauma-induced ARF.
The nurse is preparing an adolescent diagnosed with leukemia for a lumbar puncture. The nurse determines that the child understands the reason for the procedure when the child states that the procedure is done to:
A. Make sure I don't have meningitis along with my cancer.
B. Relieve some of the pressure on my brain.
C. Remove the blood cancer cells so I don't have to have surgery.
D. Check to see if the cancer has spread through my spinal cord and brain.
Correct answer:
A lumbar puncture (LP) in leukemia is performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to check for central nervous system (CNS) involvement cancer cells spreading to the spinal cord and brain a critical staging step that influences treatment, like intrathecal chemotherapy. The adolescent's statement about checking for spread reflects accurate understanding, essential for informed consent and reducing anxiety through clarity. Ruling out meningitis is a possible LP use, but in leukemia, CNS metastasis is the primary concern unless symptoms suggest infection. Relieving brain pressure applies to conditions like hydrocephalus, not leukemia's typical presentation. Removing cancer cells via LP isn't a treatment; it's diagnostic. The nurse's confirmation of this understanding ensures the child is prepared, aligning with pediatric oncology's emphasis on patient education and procedural readiness.
You are on-scene with a 40-year-old patient with an extensive cardiac history for his age. Today, he is complaining of chest pain that radiates to his jaw and left arm. His vital signs are stable; however, once on the cardiac monitor, he exhibits ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVf. With the EKG finding, which of the following should you suspect?
A. A possible aortic dissection
B. An inferior wall myocardial infarction
C. A possible pulmonary embolus
D. A septal wall myocardial infarction
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: An inferior wall myocardial infarction. The EKG findings of ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVf indicate an inferior wall MI. Leads II, III, and aVf correspond to the inferior wall of the heart supplied by the right coronary artery. This pattern of ST elevation is indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction in this region. The symptoms of chest pain radiating to the jaw and left arm are also classic for a heart attack.
A: A possible aortic dissection is unlikely in this case as the EKG findings specifically point towards a myocardial infarction rather than aortic pathology.
C: A possible pulmonary embolus is less likely as the EKG findings are more consistent with a myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism typically presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath and chest pain.
D: A septal wall myocardial infarction is not supported by the
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 53 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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