You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A critical-care nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with pneumonia as a surgical complication. The nurses assessment reveals that the patient has an increased work of breathing due to copious tracheobronchial secretions. What should the nurse encourage the patient to do?
A. Increase oral fluids unless contraindicated
B. Call the nurse for oral suctioning, as needed
C. Lie in a low Fowlers or supine position
D. Increase activity
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Increase oral fluids unless contraindicated
Encouraging the patient to increase oral fluids, unless contraindicated, is the most effective initial intervention to manage copious tracheobronchial secretions in pneumonia. Hydration thins mucus, making it easier to mobilize and clear from the airways, thus reducing the work of breathing. Oral suctioning is inadequate for tracheobronchial secretions as it only addresses the mouth and throat, not deeper airways. Lying in a low Fowler's or supine position worsens secretion pooling and impairs breathing, contradicting the goal of improving respiratory function. Increasing activity may be beneficial later but is impractical during acute respiratory distress due to fatigue and oxygen demand. Adequate hydration supports mucociliary clearance, a critical mechanism impaired in pneumonia, and aligns with evidence-based care to prevent further complications like atelectasis or worsening infection.
Question 2
A client presents to the walk-in clinic complaining of a dry, irritating cough and production of a minute amount of mucus-like sputum. The patient complains of soreness in her chest in the sternal area. The nurse should suspect that the primary care provider will assess the patient for what health problem?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Tracheobronchitis
D. Tuberculosis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Tracheobronchitis
A dry, irritating cough with scant mucoid sputum and sternal soreness suggest tracheobronchitis, an inflammation of the trachea and bronchi often from viral infection or irritation. The cough's dry nature and minimal sputum reflect early airway inflammation, while sternal pain arises from repetitive coughing straining chest muscles. Pleural effusion typically causes dyspnea and pleuritic pain, not dry cough or sternal soreness, as fluid muffles cough reflex. Pulmonary embolism presents with sudden dyspnea, chest pain, and possibly hemoptysis, not a chronic dry cough. Tuberculosis features hemoptysis, night sweats, and weight loss, not minimal sputum or sternal pain alone. The nurse's suspicion of tracheobronchitis guides the provider to assess for fever, malaise, or recent respiratory exposure, ensuring appropriate management like rest or antivirals, distinct from more severe differentials.
Question 3
A baby is born with a penis, a scrotum with no testes, no vagina, and XX chromosomes. This condition is referred to as hermaphroditism. Which of the following could cause this abnormality?
A. Abnormally high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin production by the trophoblast cells
B. Abnormally low rates of estrogen production by the placenta
C. Abnormally high levels of luteinizing hormone in the maternal blood
D. Abnormally high levels of testosterone in the maternal blood
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Abnormally high levels of testosterone in the maternal blood
The correct answer is D: Abnormally high levels of testosterone in the maternal blood. This can cause virilization of the female fetus, leading to the development of male external genitalia. Testosterone exposure during fetal development can result in the formation of a penis and scrotum without testes in a genetic female (XX).
Rationale:
1. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male external genitalia.
2. XX chromosomes indicate a genetic female.
3. Lack of testes indicates incomplete masculinization.
4. High levels of testosterone can override the default female development pattern.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Human chorionic gonadotropin does not directly affect fetal genital development.
B: Estrogen is not responsible for male genital development.
C: Luteinizing hormone does not directly influence the development of external genitalia in the fetus.
Question 4
When assessing a child who complains of abdominal pain, what is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Palpate the most painful area first.
B. Palpate for rebound tenderness.
C. Avoid painful areas until the end of the assessment.
D. Use deep palpation for abdominal tenderness.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Avoid painful areas until the end of the assessment.
The most appropriate nursing action when assessing a child complaining of abdominal pain is to avoid painful areas until the end of the assessment (Choice C). This approach helps prevent causing unnecessary discomfort or distress to the child. By starting with non-painful areas, the nurse can establish rapport, gather important information, and assess the child's overall condition before addressing the painful areas. This ensures a thorough and sensitive assessment process.
Choice A is incorrect because palpating the most painful area first can cause distress and may not provide a comprehensive assessment. Choice B, palpating for rebound tenderness, is not appropriate as it is more specific to assessing for peritonitis in adults. Choice D, using deep palpation for abdominal tenderness, can be uncomfortable for the child and should be avoided until other assessments have been completed.
Question 5
know that is about today, and leadership about tomorrow
A. Organization
B. Process
C. Progress
D. Management
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Management
The correct answer is D: Management. The statement emphasizes the importance of leadership in shaping the future, which is a key aspect of management. Management involves planning, organizing, leading, and controlling resources to achieve a specific goal or vision for the future. Leadership focuses on inspiring and guiding individuals towards a shared vision or goal, which is essential for effective management.
A: Organization primarily deals with structuring and coordinating activities within a group, but it does not capture the forward-thinking aspect emphasized in the statement.
B: Process refers to a series of actions or steps to achieve a specific outcome, but it does not directly address the role of leadership in shaping the future.
C: Progress is the advancement towards a goal or improvement, but it does not specifically relate to the concept of leadership guiding future outcomes.
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Question 6
2 Which of the following is the best way for a nursing assistant to keep residents' health information confidential?
A. Discuss a resident's information away from the facility so that other residents cannot hear it
B. Bring family and friends to the facility to meet the residents
C. Return charts to their proper place after use
D. Post updates about favorite residents on her Facebook page to avoid being overheard
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Return charts to their proper place after use. This is the best way for a nursing assistant to keep residents' health information confidential because it ensures that sensitive information is stored securely and not left out in the open where unauthorized individuals can access it. By returning charts to their proper place, the nursing assistant is following proper protocol for maintaining confidentiality and upholding the residents' right to privacy.
Choice A is incorrect because discussing a resident's information away from the facility does not guarantee confidentiality and can still risk unauthorized disclosure. Choice B is incorrect as bringing family and friends to the facility can compromise residents' privacy and confidentiality. Choice D is incorrect as posting updates about residents on social media violates their right to privacy and confidentiality.
A 55-yr-old patient with increasing dyspnea is being evaluated for a possible diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). When teaching a patient about pulmonary spirometry for this condition, what is the most important question the nurse should ask?
A. Are you claustrophobic?
B. Have you taken any bronchodilators today?
C. Have you had frequent streptococcal throat infections?
D. Do you use antihistamines for upper airway congestion?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Have you had frequent streptococcal throat infections? This is the most important question to ask because repeated streptococcal throat infections can lead to bronchiectasis, which is a risk factor for COPD. Bronchiectasis causes permanent dilation of the bronchi, leading to airflow obstruction. It is crucial to assess this history as it can provide valuable information on the patient's risk for developing COPD.
A: Are you claustrophobic? - This question is not directly related to the assessment for COPD through pulmonary spirometry.
B: Have you taken any bronchodilators today? - While important for assessing current medication use, it is not as crucial as determining the history of streptococcal throat infections.
D: Do you use antihistamines for upper airway congestion? - Antihistamine use may not be directly linked to the risk factors for COPD development.
Which of the following was most likely one of the postreceptor mechanisms triggered by methadone?
A. Inhibition of the synthesis of inositol triphosphate/diacylglycerol (IP3/DAG)
B. Blockade of Ca2+ channels on presynaptic nerve terminals
C. Opening of Na+ channels on neuronal cell membrane
D. Stimulation of adenylyl cyclase activity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because methadone stimulates adenylyl cyclase activity as a postreceptor mechanism. Methadone is an opioid receptor agonist that activates G-protein coupled receptors, leading to the activation of adenylyl cyclase and subsequent increase in cAMP levels. This increased cAMP signaling pathway results in various downstream effects, including modulation of neurotransmitter release and neuronal excitability.
A: Inhibition of the synthesis of inositol triphosphate/diacylglycerol (IP3/DAG) is not a postreceptor mechanism triggered by methadone.
B: Blockade of Ca2+ channels on presynaptic nerve terminals is not a postreceptor mechanism triggered by methadone.
C: Opening of Na+ channels on neuronal cell membrane is not a postreceptor mechanism triggered by methadone.
In summary, methadone's stimulation of adenylyl cyclase activity is the correct choice as it align
A nursing is planning the care of a patient with emphysema who will soon be discharged. What teaching should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care?
A. Taking prophylactic antibiotics as ordered
B. Adhering to the treatment regimen in order to cure the disease
C. Avoiding airplanes, buses, and other crowded public places
D. Setting realistic short-term and long-range goals
Correct answer:
For an emphysema patient nearing discharge, setting realistic short-term and long-range goals is the priority teaching, fostering adaptation to this incurable, progressive disease. Goals like pacing activities to manage dyspnea or mastering pursed-lip breathing align with emphysema's chronic hyperinflation and airflow limitation, enhancing quality of life despite irreversible alveolar damage. Prophylactic antibiotics aren't standard; they treat infections, not preventing emphysema progression. Adherence to treatment (e.g., bronchodilators) manages symptoms but doesn't cure emphasizing cure misleads the patient. Avoiding crowded places reduces infection risk but isn't universally required unless immunocompromised. The nurse's focus on goal-setting specific, achievable targets builds self-efficacy, preparing the patient for home management and realistic expectations, per COPD care standards.
You are responding to a possible assault call. You choose to park down the block from the house, as police have not yet made the scene safe. However, you see what looks to be a patient in distress in the upper story window. What would be the safest approach in this situation?
A. Wait for responding police to control the situation and say that it is safe for EMS
B. Wait for police to arrive, then grab your gear and go in with police to treat the patient
C. Drive up to the driveway to get a better view of the patient's condition
D. Head into the house to treat the patient since he could be critically hurt
Correct answer:
The correct approach is A: Wait for responding police to control the situation and say that it is safe for EMS. This is the safest option because the scene has not been secured by law enforcement, and your safety is paramount. By waiting for the police to arrive and ensure the scene is safe, you are minimizing the risk of potential harm to yourself and allowing for a coordinated and controlled response. It is crucial to prioritize personal safety and follow established protocols in such high-risk situations.
Summary of other choices:
B: Waiting for police to arrive before entering is important, but going in with them could still expose you to unnecessary risk.
C: Driving up to the driveway without police presence could put you in harm's way and compromise scene safety.
D: Heading into the house without police clearance is extremely dangerous and could escalate the situation further.
The nurse is caring for a patient who will undergo a removal of a lung lobe. Which level of care will the patient require immediately post procedure?
A. Acute care"â€medical-surgical unit
B. Acute care"â€intensive care unit
C. Ambulatory surgery
D. Ambulatory surgery"â€extended stay
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Acute care - intensive care unit. Post lung lobe removal, the patient may require close monitoring of vital signs, respiratory status, pain management, and potential complications like bleeding or respiratory distress. The intensive care unit provides specialized care and continuous monitoring by healthcare professionals to manage any postoperative complications promptly.
Choice A (Acute care - medical-surgical unit) may not provide the level of monitoring and specialized care that an intensive care unit offers for a patient undergoing major surgery like lung lobe removal.
Choices C (Ambulatory surgery) and D (Ambulatory surgery - extended stay) are not appropriate postoperative care settings for a patient undergoing lung lobe removal, as this surgery is major and requires more intensive monitoring and care than what ambulatory surgery settings can provide.
The nurse is assessing cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve). Which action is most appropriate?
A. Ask the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance.
B. Have the patient stick out their tongue.
C. Test the patient's ability to chew.
D. Evaluate the patient's sense of smell.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Ask the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance. This is the most appropriate action for assessing cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve) because this nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, which are responsible for shoulder shrugging and head rotation, respectively. By asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance, the nurse can assess the strength and function of the trapezius muscle, which is controlled by the spinal accessory nerve.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Having the patient stick out their tongue is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve), not cranial nerve XI.
C: Testing the patient's ability to chew is used to assess cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve), not cranial nerve XI.
D: Evaluating the patient's sense of smell is used to assess cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve),
An infected client was on an airplane traveling home and it was shedding a virus that can directly
A. Which form of transmission is being described
B. Agent
C. Direct
D. Environment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Direct. In this scenario, the virus is being transmitted directly from the infected client to others on the airplane without any intermediary. The term "direct transmission" refers to the immediate transfer of an infectious agent from an infected individual to a susceptible host. This aligns with the situation described in the question where the virus is being shed by the infected client and directly transmitted to others on the plane.
Choice A (Which form of transmission is being described) is incorrect as it does not provide a specific answer to the type of transmission discussed in the scenario. Choice B (Agent) is incorrect as it refers to the infectious microorganism itself rather than the mode of transmission. Choice D (Environment) is incorrect as it does not directly address the method of transmission from the infected client to others on the airplane.
A 7-year-old child with osteosarcoma is being treated with chemotherapy. Which medication would the nurse expect the physician to order most commonly as a prophylaxis against Pneumocystis jirovecii?
A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B. Ketoconazole
C. Filgastim
D. Prednisone
Correct answer:
Osteosarcoma chemotherapy compromises the immune system, increasing susceptibility to opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP), a serious risk in immunocompromised children. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is the most common prophylactic antibiotic for PCP, effectively preventing this lung infection by targeting its causative organism. Ketoconazole treats fungal infections but not PCP, which is caused by a fungus-like organism requiring specific therapy. Filgrastim stimulates neutrophil production to combat neutropenia, not PCP directly. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, suppresses immunity and reduces tumor-related edema but doesn't prevent infections and may increase risk. The nurse anticipates TMP-SMX due to its established role in pediatric oncology protocols, ensuring protection against a preventable, potentially fatal complication during chemotherapy.
When an LVN/LPN is working for a health-care organization that has professional liability insurance, the nurse needs to base a decision on whether to buy individual professional liability insurance on which of the following things?
A. the possibility that the organization could countersue the nurse in a lawsuit
B. the cost of professional liability insurance to the nurse
C. the amount and type of coverage the health-care organization carries
D. the number of hours worked and the type of nursing work
Correct answer:
Deciding whether to purchase individual professional liability insurance as an LVN/LPN involves weighing personal risk, and the possibility of the organization countersuing the nurse in a lawsuit is a critical factor. Organizational insurance typically covers nurses acting within their scope, but if a lawsuit arises and the organization's interests diverge such as alleging nurse negligence they might countersue to deflect liability. Individual insurance provides independent protection, ensuring legal defense and coverage tailored to the nurse's needs. Cost, organizational coverage, and work hours are relevant but secondary; cost affects feasibility, coverage might leave gaps, and hours or work type influence risk but don't address the specific threat of a countersuit. This choice emphasizes proactive self-protection in a litigious environment, safeguarding the nurse's career and finances.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 52 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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