You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Becky has been NPO since midnight in preparation for a blood test. The adreno-cortical response is activated. Which of the following is an expected response?
A. Low blood pressure
B. Warm, dry skin
C. Decreased serum sodium levels
D. Decreased urine output
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Decreased urine output
The adrenocortical response, triggered by fasting (NPO status), activates stress hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, conserving resources during deprivation. Decreased urine output results from aldosterone's promotion of sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys, maintaining fluid volume and blood pressure. This adaptation counters the stress of fasting, ensuring homeostasis. Low blood pressure would oppose this, as the response aims to stabilize circulation, not reduce it. Warm, dry skin isn't typical; stress might cause cool, clammy skin from vasoconstriction, but fasting alone doesn't dictate this. Decreased serum sodium levels contradict aldosterone's sodium-retaining effect, which elevates or stabilizes sodium. Decreased urine output aligns with the body's conservation mechanism, making it the expected physiological response in this scenario, critical for nurses to recognize during patient monitoring.
Question 2
Several minutes after sealing your adult trauma patient's sucking chest wound with an occlusive dressing secured on three sides, he begins to experience increasing shortness of breath, jugular vein distension, decreasing unilateral breath sounds on the affected side, and his blood pressure is less than 90 systolic and falling. Repeated attempts to relieve the pressure at the occlusive dressing have proven ineffective. At this point, which of the following should be initiated?
A. Remove the occlusive dressing and pull sucking chest wound open gently to allow air to escape the chest
B. Translaryngeal Jet Ventilation using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is an inch to an inch-and-a-half long
C. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilations via forced air ventilator
D. Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long
The correct answer is D: Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long.
Rationale:
1. Symptoms indicate tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing pressure on the heart and lungs.
2. Needle decompression is the immediate intervention for tension pneumothorax to release trapped air and relieve pressure.
3. A longer catheter is needed to ensure successful decompression.
4. Translaryngeal Jet Ventilation (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not address the underlying issue of trapped air.
5. Endotracheal intubation (Choice C) may delay definitive treatment and worsen the patient's condition.
6. Removing the occlusive dressing (Choice A) without proper decompression can further exacerbate tension pneumothorax.
Summary:
Immediate needle decompression is crucial to treat tension pneumoth
Question 3
The nurse has recently set limits for a patient with borderline personality disorder. The patient tells the nurse, 'You used to care about me. I thought you were wonderful. Now I can see I was mistaken. You're hateful.' Which phenomenon is represented by this response?
A. Splitting
B. Denial
C. Reaction formation
D. Projection
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Splitting
The correct answer is A: Splitting. Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen in individuals with borderline personality disorder where they perceive others as either all good or all bad. In this scenario, the patient's sudden shift from viewing the nurse as wonderful to hateful demonstrates splitting. The patient is unable to integrate both positive and negative aspects of the nurse's behavior, leading to extreme and polarized perceptions.
Choice B: Denial involves refusing to accept reality to protect oneself from uncomfortable truths, which is not demonstrated in this response.
Choice C: Reaction formation is a defense mechanism where an individual behaves in a way that is opposite to their true feelings, which is not evident in the patient's response.
Choice D: Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings onto someone else, which is not the case in this scenario.
Question 4
The Perioperative Patient Focused Model presents key components of nursing influence that guide patient care. Select the statement that best describes the dynamic relationship within the model.
A. The patient experience and the nursing presence are in continuous interaction.
B. Structure, process, and outcome are the foundation domains of the model.
C. The perioperative nurse is the central dynamic core of the model.
D. The interrelated nursing process rings bind the patient to the model.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — The patient experience and the nursing presence are in continuous interaction.
Choice A is correct because the Perioperative Patient Focused Model emphasizes the continuous interaction between the patient's experience and the nursing presence, as noted on page 3. This model highlights domains like nursing diagnoses, interventions, and outcomes, all orbiting around the patient as the focal point. Unlike choice B, which lists static components, the model's essence lies in its dynamic interplay. Choice C overstates the nurse's role as the core, when it's the patient who is central. Choice D mentions the nursing process but misses the broader interaction focus. The patient's needs drive nursing actions, creating a fluid relationship where care adapts in real-time, reflecting perioperative nursing's responsive nature. This continuous engagement ensures safety and tailored interventions, aligning with the model's intent to prioritize patient-centered care amidst the health system's complexities.
Question 5
The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.
A. Henderson
B. Abdellah
C. Levin
D. Peplau
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Henderson
Virginia Henderson's definition of nursing, articulated in the 1950s, centers on assisting individuals healthy or ill with activities they'd manage independently if capable, aiming to foster autonomy. Her Nature of Nursing theory lists 14 basic needs (e.g., breathing, eating, eliminating), framing nurses as substitutes (fully assisting), helpers (partly supporting), or partners (collaborating) based on patient ability. Unlike Abdellah's problem-solving focus, Levin's conservation principles, or Peplau's interpersonal relations, Henderson's approach is practical and patient-centered. For instance, a postoperative patient might need help eating until strength returns nurses facilitate this to hasten recovery. Her emphasis on independence influenced modern nursing education and practice, evident in care plans prioritizing patient self-management, making it a landmark concept in defining nursing's scope and purpose.
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Question 6
Which theme is most likely during family therapy with parents, siblings, and a teen patient with anorexia nervosa who engages in provocative behavior?
A. Stable coalitions between family members
B. Interpreting negative messages as positive
C. Competition between the patient and father
D. Lack of trust in the patient by family members
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Competition between the patient and father. In family therapy with a teen patient with anorexia nervosa, the theme of competition between the patient and a parental figure, often the father, can be prominent. The rationale is that the father's influence and expectations can contribute to the teen's feelings of inadequacy and drive for control through anorexic behaviors. This dynamic can be explored and addressed in therapy to improve family relationships and support the patient's recovery.
A: Stable coalitions between family members - This is less likely as anorexia nervosa often disrupts family dynamics.
B: Interpreting negative messages as positive - While this can be a relevant theme, it is not as central to the specific scenario described.
D: Lack of trust in the patient by family members - While trust issues may exist, the theme of competition is more relevant in this context.
Your adult patient is experiencing lightheadedness and shortness of breath. He is found to be bradycardic with a second-degree type II AV heart block on the electrocardiogram. His heart rate is 44, he is breathing 20 times per minute, and has a blood pressure of 90 systolic. He is cool and pale but denies chest pain. Which of the following would be most appropriate if the patient fails to respond to atropine?
A. Administer 1 milligram of epinephrine
B. Synchronized cardioversion at 10 joules
C. Transcutaneous pacing
D. Administer a 500-milliliter IV bolus of normal saline
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Transcutaneous pacing. In this scenario of a patient with bradycardia and a second-degree type II AV block, transcutaneous pacing is the most appropriate next step if the patient fails to respond to atropine. Transcutaneous pacing involves placing external electrodes on the patient's chest to deliver electrical impulses to stimulate the heart, effectively pacing the heart and maintaining an adequate heart rate. This is crucial in a patient with symptomatic bradycardia and heart blocks as it can quickly and effectively increase the heart rate and improve cardiac output.
The other choices are incorrect:
A: Administering 1 milligram of epinephrine may be too aggressive and can further worsen the heart block in this case.
B: Synchronized cardioversion at 10 joules is not indicated for bradycardia and can be harmful in this scenario.
D: Administering a 500-milliliter IV bolus of normal
A nurse researcher ensures that a research subject's privacy is protected by which method?
A. Anonymity
B. Confidentiality
C. Beneficence
D. Justice
Correct answer:
Protecting research subjects' privacy is a cornerstone of ethical nursing studies, achieved through anonymity and confidentiality. Anonymity ensures no link exists between subjects and data, as when identities aren't recorded, safeguarding personal details even from researchers. Confidentiality prevents divulging identifiable information, maintaining trust by restricting access to data. Beneficence maximizes benefits and minimizes harm, while justice ensures fair participant selection both ethical but not privacy-specific. Autonomy respects choice, not privacy directly. These methods e.g., anonymizing survey responses uphold dignity, encouraging participation without fear of exposure. In nursing, where vulnerable populations are common, such safeguards are vital, balancing scientific inquiry with human rights, ensuring ethical integrity and credible, unbiased results that advance care without compromising trust.
Infection prevention for the portal of exit link in the chain of infection could include
A. Covering the mouth when sneezing
B. Keeping surfaces clean and dry
C. Getting a vaccine for a particular disease
D. Handwashing
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct:
1. The portal of exit is where the infectious agent leaves the reservoir host.
2. Covering the mouth when sneezing helps prevent the spread of respiratory infections through droplets.
3. By covering the mouth, the risk of releasing infectious droplets into the environment decreases, thus reducing transmission.
4. This practice is a direct way to prevent the exit of infectious agents from the reservoir host.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
- B: Keeping surfaces clean and dry is related to the mode of transmission or reservoir, not specifically to the portal of exit.
- C: Getting a vaccine for a particular disease is a preventive measure but not directly related to the portal of exit.
- D: Handwashing is important for infection prevention but is more related to breaking the chain at the mode of transmission stage, not at the portal of exit.
A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic for evaluation of a cold. She tells the nurse that he has had 'a runny nose for a week.' When performing the physical assessment, the nurse notes that the child has nasal flaring and sternal and intercostal retractions. The nurse's next action should be to:
A. Assure the mother that these signs are normal symptoms of a cold.
B. Recognize that these are serious signs, and contact the physician.
C. Ask the mother if the infant has had trouble with feedings.
D. Perform a complete cardiac assessment because these signs are probably indicative of early heart failure.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Recognize that these are serious signs, and contact the physician. Nasal flaring and sternal and intercostal retractions are signs of respiratory distress in infants. These indicate increased work of breathing and potential respiratory compromise. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize these serious signs and promptly involve the physician for further evaluation and management.
Incorrect choices:
A: Assuring the mother that these signs are normal symptoms of a cold is incorrect because these signs indicate respiratory distress, not just a common cold.
C: Asking about feeding issues is not the immediate priority when the infant is showing signs of respiratory distress. Contacting the physician is more urgent.
D: Performing a complete cardiac assessment is not indicated based on the presented signs, as they are more suggestive of respiratory distress rather than early heart failure.
The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high risk patient which nursing action will be most effective
A. Turn and reposition an immobile patient at least every 2 hours.
B. Place a patient with altered consciousness in a side-lying position.
C. Insert a nasogastric tube for feeding a patient with high-calorie needs.
D. Monitor respiratory symptoms in a patient who is immunosuppressed.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Place a patient with altered consciousness in a side-lying position. This is the most effective nursing action to prevent aspiration in a high-risk patient because it helps prevent the patient from aspirating any secretions or vomitus. Placing the patient in a side-lying position helps to maintain an open airway and allows for proper drainage of fluids from the mouth.
Rationale:
A: Turning and repositioning an immobile patient every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers, but it does not directly address the risk of aspiration.
C: Inserting a nasogastric tube for feeding a patient with high-calorie needs is not a preventative measure for aspiration and may even increase the risk if not managed properly.
D: Monitoring respiratory symptoms in an immunosuppressed patient is important for early detection of respiratory infections but does not directly prevent aspiration.
One way for an NA to have a positive relationship with a resident's family and friends is to
A. Avoid talking to the resident when he has visitors
B. Let the family take care of the resident's needs themselves
C. Tell the resident's friends stories about the resident that will make them laugh
D. Respond immediately when the resident calls for help
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because responding immediately when the resident calls for help shows attentiveness and care, building trust with the resident's family and friends. This action demonstrates the NA's dedication to the resident's well-being and emphasizes their commitment to providing timely assistance.
A is incorrect as avoiding talking to the resident when he has visitors can signal indifference and lack of engagement. B is incorrect because letting the family take care of the resident's needs themselves may suggest neglect of the NA's responsibilities. C is incorrect as telling stories about the resident without their consent may invade their privacy and potentially create uncomfortable situations.
In summary, choice D is the most effective way for an NA to establish a positive relationship with a resident's family and friends by prioritizing the resident's needs and ensuring prompt assistance.
In the nursing process, the purpose of assessment is to:
A. Implement Doctors' orders
B. Comply with nursing requirements
C. Establish a data base concerning the patient/client
D. Ensure nursing instructions are followed
Correct answer:
The assessment phase of the nursing process is designed to establish a comprehensive database about the patient, gathering subjective and objective data like symptoms, vital signs, and health history to inform subsequent steps. This foundational role ensures nurses understand the patient's condition fully before diagnosing or planning care. Implementing doctors' orders occurs in the implementation phase, not assessment, which precedes action. Complying with nursing requirements is a procedural concern, not the purpose of assessment, which focuses on patient needs, not regulatory checklists. Ensuring nursing instructions are followed relates to evaluation or implementation, not data collection. By creating a detailed patient profile, assessment enables nurses to identify problems, set goals, and tailor interventions, making it the critical starting point for effective, individualized care in the nursing process.
A student nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adult patient with asthma. Which teaching point should have the highest priority in the plan of care that the student is developing?
A. Gradually increase levels of physical exertion
B. Change filters on heaters and air conditioners frequently
C. Take prescribed medications as scheduled
D. Avoid goose-down pillows
Correct answer:
For an adult with asthma, the highest priority teaching point is taking prescribed medications as scheduled, ensuring control of airway inflammation and bronchospasm. Inhaled corticosteroids (e.g., budesonide) and long-acting bronchodilators prevent exacerbations by maintaining baseline lung function, while rescue inhalers (e.g., albuterol) address acute symptoms adherence is critical, as non-compliance drives 60% of asthma hospitalizations. Increasing exertion gradually aids fitness but risks triggering attacks if uncontrolled. Changing filters reduces allergens (e.g., dust), a secondary environmental step. Avoiding goose-down pillows minimizes feather triggers, but this is less impactful than medication. The student nurse's focus on adherence detailing timing, technique (e.g., spacer), and side effects empowers the patient to prevent attacks, aligning with asthma action plans and long-term management success.
Which factor contributes to the aging population in rural areas?
A. Higher fertility rates in rural areas
B. Higher levels of migration from urban to rural areas
C. The tendency for younger populations to migrate to urban areas for work and education
D. Higher birth rates in rural communities
Correct answer:
Rationale for choice C: Younger populations migrating to urban areas for work and education leads to an aging population in rural areas due to a lack of young people staying behind to balance the age demographics. This phenomenon is known as rural to urban migration, resulting in a decrease in the proportion of young individuals in rural areas over time. This trend ultimately contributes to the aging population in rural regions.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Higher fertility rates in rural areas would lead to a younger population rather than contributing to an aging population.
B: Higher levels of migration from urban to rural areas would not contribute to an aging population in rural areas; instead, it would likely lead to a rejuvenation of the population.
D: Higher birth rates in rural communities would also result in a younger population rather than contributing to an aging population.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 42 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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