LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 42

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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 42

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

Becky has been NPO since midnight in preparation for a blood test. The adreno-cortical response is activated. Which of the following is an expected response?

  1. A. Low blood pressure
  2. B. Warm, dry skin
  3. C. Decreased serum sodium levels
  4. D. Decreased urine output
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Decreased urine output

The adrenocortical response, triggered by fasting (NPO status), activates stress hormones like cortisol and aldosterone, conserving resources during deprivation. Decreased urine output results from aldosterone's promotion of sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys, maintaining fluid volume and blood pressure. This adaptation counters the stress of fasting, ensuring homeostasis. Low blood pressure would oppose this, as the response aims to stabilize circulation, not reduce it. Warm, dry skin isn't typical; stress might cause cool, clammy skin from vasoconstriction, but fasting alone doesn't dictate this. Decreased serum sodium levels contradict aldosterone's sodium-retaining effect, which elevates or stabilizes sodium. Decreased urine output aligns with the body's conservation mechanism, making it the expected physiological response in this scenario, critical for nurses to recognize during patient monitoring.

Question 2

Several minutes after sealing your adult trauma patient's sucking chest wound with an occlusive dressing secured on three sides, he begins to experience increasing shortness of breath, jugular vein distension, decreasing unilateral breath sounds on the affected side, and his blood pressure is less than 90 systolic and falling. Repeated attempts to relieve the pressure at the occlusive dressing have proven ineffective. At this point, which of the following should be initiated?

  1. A. Remove the occlusive dressing and pull sucking chest wound open gently to allow air to escape the chest
  2. B. Translaryngeal Jet Ventilation using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is an inch to an inch-and-a-half long
  3. C. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilations via forced air ventilator
  4. D. Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long

The correct answer is D: Immediate needle decompression using a 10- or 14-gauge catheter that is at least 2 or 2.5 inches long. Rationale: 1. Symptoms indicate tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing pressure on the heart and lungs. 2. Needle decompression is the immediate intervention for tension pneumothorax to release trapped air and relieve pressure. 3. A longer catheter is needed to ensure successful decompression. 4. Translaryngeal Jet Ventilation (Choice B) is not recommended as it does not address the underlying issue of trapped air. 5. Endotracheal intubation (Choice C) may delay definitive treatment and worsen the patient's condition. 6. Removing the occlusive dressing (Choice A) without proper decompression can further exacerbate tension pneumothorax. Summary: Immediate needle decompression is crucial to treat tension pneumoth

Question 3

The nurse has recently set limits for a patient with borderline personality disorder. The patient tells the nurse, 'You used to care about me. I thought you were wonderful. Now I can see I was mistaken. You're hateful.' Which phenomenon is represented by this response?

  1. A. Splitting
  2. B. Denial
  3. C. Reaction formation
  4. D. Projection
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Splitting

The correct answer is A: Splitting. Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen in individuals with borderline personality disorder where they perceive others as either all good or all bad. In this scenario, the patient's sudden shift from viewing the nurse as wonderful to hateful demonstrates splitting. The patient is unable to integrate both positive and negative aspects of the nurse's behavior, leading to extreme and polarized perceptions. Choice B: Denial involves refusing to accept reality to protect oneself from uncomfortable truths, which is not demonstrated in this response. Choice C: Reaction formation is a defense mechanism where an individual behaves in a way that is opposite to their true feelings, which is not evident in the patient's response. Choice D: Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings onto someone else, which is not the case in this scenario.

Question 4

The Perioperative Patient Focused Model presents key components of nursing influence that guide patient care. Select the statement that best describes the dynamic relationship within the model.

  1. A. The patient experience and the nursing presence are in continuous interaction.
  2. B. Structure, process, and outcome are the foundation domains of the model.
  3. C. The perioperative nurse is the central dynamic core of the model.
  4. D. The interrelated nursing process rings bind the patient to the model.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — The patient experience and the nursing presence are in continuous interaction.

Choice A is correct because the Perioperative Patient Focused Model emphasizes the continuous interaction between the patient's experience and the nursing presence, as noted on page 3. This model highlights domains like nursing diagnoses, interventions, and outcomes, all orbiting around the patient as the focal point. Unlike choice B, which lists static components, the model's essence lies in its dynamic interplay. Choice C overstates the nurse's role as the core, when it's the patient who is central. Choice D mentions the nursing process but misses the broader interaction focus. The patient's needs drive nursing actions, creating a fluid relationship where care adapts in real-time, reflecting perioperative nursing's responsive nature. This continuous engagement ensures safety and tailored interventions, aligning with the model's intent to prioritize patient-centered care amidst the health system's complexities.

Question 5

The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.

  1. A. Henderson
  2. B. Abdellah
  3. C. Levin
  4. D. Peplau
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Henderson

Virginia Henderson's definition of nursing, articulated in the 1950s, centers on assisting individuals healthy or ill with activities they'd manage independently if capable, aiming to foster autonomy. Her Nature of Nursing theory lists 14 basic needs (e.g., breathing, eating, eliminating), framing nurses as substitutes (fully assisting), helpers (partly supporting), or partners (collaborating) based on patient ability. Unlike Abdellah's problem-solving focus, Levin's conservation principles, or Peplau's interpersonal relations, Henderson's approach is practical and patient-centered. For instance, a postoperative patient might need help eating until strength returns nurses facilitate this to hasten recovery. Her emphasis on independence influenced modern nursing education and practice, evident in care plans prioritizing patient self-management, making it a landmark concept in defining nursing's scope and purpose.

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Question 6

Which theme is most likely during family therapy with parents, siblings, and a teen patient with anorexia nervosa who engages in provocative behavior?

  1. A. Stable coalitions between family members
  2. B. Interpreting negative messages as positive
  3. C. Competition between the patient and father
  4. D. Lack of trust in the patient by family members
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Question 7

Your adult patient is experiencing lightheadedness and shortness of breath. He is found to be bradycardic with a second-degree type II AV heart block on the electrocardiogram. His heart rate is 44, he is breathing 20 times per minute, and has a blood pressure of 90 systolic. He is cool and pale but denies chest pain. Which of the following would be most appropriate if the patient fails to respond to atropine?

  1. A. Administer 1 milligram of epinephrine
  2. B. Synchronized cardioversion at 10 joules
  3. C. Transcutaneous pacing
  4. D. Administer a 500-milliliter IV bolus of normal saline
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Question 8

A nurse researcher ensures that a research subject's privacy is protected by which method?

  1. A. Anonymity
  2. B. Confidentiality
  3. C. Beneficence
  4. D. Justice
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Question 9

Infection prevention for the portal of exit link in the chain of infection could include

  1. A. Covering the mouth when sneezing
  2. B. Keeping surfaces clean and dry
  3. C. Getting a vaccine for a particular disease
  4. D. Handwashing
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Question 10

A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic for evaluation of a cold. She tells the nurse that he has had 'a runny nose for a week.' When performing the physical assessment, the nurse notes that the child has nasal flaring and sternal and intercostal retractions. The nurse's next action should be to:

  1. A. Assure the mother that these signs are normal symptoms of a cold.
  2. B. Recognize that these are serious signs, and contact the physician.
  3. C. Ask the mother if the infant has had trouble with feedings.
  4. D. Perform a complete cardiac assessment because these signs are probably indicative of early heart failure.
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Question 11

The nurse develops a plan of care to prevent aspiration in a high risk patient which nursing action will be most effective

  1. A. Turn and reposition an immobile patient at least every 2 hours.
  2. B. Place a patient with altered consciousness in a side-lying position.
  3. C. Insert a nasogastric tube for feeding a patient with high-calorie needs.
  4. D. Monitor respiratory symptoms in a patient who is immunosuppressed.
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Question 12

One way for an NA to have a positive relationship with a resident's family and friends is to

  1. A. Avoid talking to the resident when he has visitors
  2. B. Let the family take care of the resident's needs themselves
  3. C. Tell the resident's friends stories about the resident that will make them laugh
  4. D. Respond immediately when the resident calls for help
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Question 13

In the nursing process, the purpose of assessment is to:

  1. A. Implement Doctors' orders
  2. B. Comply with nursing requirements
  3. C. Establish a data base concerning the patient/client
  4. D. Ensure nursing instructions are followed
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Question 14

A student nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adult patient with asthma. Which teaching point should have the highest priority in the plan of care that the student is developing?

  1. A. Gradually increase levels of physical exertion
  2. B. Change filters on heaters and air conditioners frequently
  3. C. Take prescribed medications as scheduled
  4. D. Avoid goose-down pillows
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Question 15

Which factor contributes to the aging population in rural areas?

  1. A. Higher fertility rates in rural areas
  2. B. Higher levels of migration from urban to rural areas
  3. C. The tendency for younger populations to migrate to urban areas for work and education
  4. D. Higher birth rates in rural communities
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 42 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.