You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention for a client wearing anti-embolic stockings?
A. Measure the legs before applying stockings to assure proper fit
B. Applying the stockings while the client is sitting in a chair
C. Massage the legs when removing the stockings
D. Leave the stockings in place for one week intervals
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Measure the legs before applying stockings to assure proper fit
Correct Answer: A - Measure the legs before applying stockings to assure proper fit.
Rationale: Proper fit is crucial for the effectiveness of anti-embolic stockings. Measuring the legs ensures a snug but not too tight fit, promoting circulation without causing discomfort or complications. This step helps prevent skin breakdown, nerve compression, and circulation issues.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Applying the stockings while the client is sitting in a chair - This is incorrect as stockings should be applied when the client is lying down with legs elevated to reduce swelling and make application easier.
C: Massage the legs when removing the stockings - Massaging the legs can dislodge blood clots, which is dangerous for clients wearing anti-embolic stockings.
D: Leave the stockings in place for one week intervals - Stockings should be regularly removed and washed to maintain hygiene and prevent skin irritation or infections. Leaving them on for a week can lead to complications.
Question 2
A 35 year old female sustains multiple injuries in a motor vehicle crash and is transported to a small hospital in full spinal protection. She has a GCS of 4 and is being mechanically ventilate I.v access is established and warmed crystalloid is infuse She remains hemodynamically normal and full spinal protection is maintaine Preparations are made to transfer her to another facility for definitive neurosurgical care. Prior to transport, which of the following tests or treatments is mandatory?
A. FAST exam
B. Lateral cervical spine xray
C. Chest x-ray
D. Administration of methylprednisolone
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Chest x-ray
The correct answer is C: Chest x-ray. Before transferring the patient for neurosurgical care, a chest x-ray is mandatory to assess for any potential thoracic injuries that may impact respiratory function during transport. This is crucial to ensure the patient's stability and prevent any complications.
Choice A, FAST exam, is typically used to evaluate for intra-abdominal injuries and is not directly related to the patient's immediate need for neurosurgical care.
Choice B, Lateral cervical spine x-ray, may be important for assessing cervical spine injuries, but in this scenario, the patient is already in full spinal protection and the priority is to address potential thoracic injuries that could affect respiratory function.
Choice D, Administration of methylprednisolone, is not indicated as a mandatory step prior to transport for neurosurgical care. While it may be considered as part of the treatment plan later on, it is not an immediate requirement for safe transport in this case.
Question 3
A patient is noted to be bending over backward in the group room. A peer asks what he is doing, and he replies, 'People say they are bending over backwards to help me, so I am bending over backwards to help myself.' This is an example of:
A. abstract thinking.
B. concrete thinking.
C. impaired reality testing.
D. boundary impairment.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — concrete thinking.
The correct answer is B: concrete thinking. Concrete thinking refers to interpreting things in a literal or straightforward manner without grasping abstract concepts or metaphors. In this scenario, the patient is taking the expression "bending over backward" literally, demonstrating a lack of understanding of its figurative meaning.
A: Abstract thinking involves understanding complex concepts and interpreting information beyond the literal meaning. The patient's response does not demonstrate abstract thinking.
C: Impaired reality testing refers to an inability to distinguish between what is real and what is not. The patient's response does not suggest a detachment from reality.
D: Boundary impairment involves difficulty in recognizing and maintaining personal boundaries. The patient's response does not relate to boundary issues.
In summary, the patient's literal interpretation of the expression "bending over backward" reflects concrete thinking, making choice B the correct answer.
Question 4
An unresponsive adult trauma patient exhibits pale, cold, and clammy skin that appears ashen/cyanotic. He is breathing less than eight times a minute, has a heart rate of 32 beats a minute, and shows an irregular bradyarrhythmia on the monitor in lead II. He is experiencing frank hypotension that is barely palpable. Which of the following stages of shock is most likely causing his presentation?
A. Irreversible shock
B. Uncompensated shock
C. Reversible shock
D. Compensated shock
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Uncompensated shock
The correct answer is B: Uncompensated shock. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with severe signs of shock, including hypotension, bradycardia, bradyarrhythmia, and inadequate breathing. Uncompensated shock occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, leading to decreased tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. The patient's pale, cold, clammy skin and cyanosis indicate poor perfusion. The low heart rate and irregular rhythm suggest the heart is struggling to maintain cardiac output. The inadequate respiratory rate further impairs oxygenation. These findings collectively indicate that the patient is in a state of decompensation, unable to adequately compensate for the decreased perfusion. Irreversible shock (A) would involve complete organ failure and a fatal outcome. Reversible shock (C) implies that interventions could restore normal perfusion, which is not the case here. Compensated shock (D) would involve more effective compensatory mechanisms to maintain perf
Question 5
Which factor is most involved in the elderly as a reason for polypharmacy?
A. Decreased gastric acid levels
B. Reduced cardiovascular functioning
C. Greater incidence of chronic illness
D. Reduced OTC availability
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Greater incidence of chronic illness
Polypharmacy, the use of multiple medications, is prevalent in the elderly due to the higher likelihood of managing several health conditions simultaneously. As people age, they are more prone to chronic illnesses like hypertension, diabetes, and arthritis, each often requiring separate medications. This cumulative effect increases prescription numbers, as each condition demands specific treatment to maintain quality of life and prevent complications. Decreased gastric acid levels affect drug absorption, not the need for multiple drugs, while reduced cardiovascular function might alter drug metabolism but isn't the primary driver. Reduced availability of over-the-counter options could limit self-medication, but it doesn't explain prescribed polypharmacy. The greater incidence of chronic diseases directly correlates with the need for ongoing, multifaceted pharmacotherapy, a common challenge in geriatric nursing that requires careful management to avoid interactions and ensure patient safety.
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Question 6
A gravida 1 para 0 who is 10 weeks pregnant has her first prenatal visit. After performing a history and physical, which test ordered by the physician should the nurse verify with the examiner?
A. Serological test for syphilis
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Clean-catch urinalysis
D. Abdominal ultrasound
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Abdominal ultrasound. At 10 weeks gestation, an abdominal ultrasound is typically ordered to confirm the viability of the pregnancy, assess fetal development, and determine gestational age. This test allows the healthcare provider to visualize the fetus, placenta, and amniotic fluid. It is essential in monitoring the progress of the pregnancy and identifying any potential complications.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Serological test for syphilis - While this test is important in prenatal care to screen for syphilis, it is usually done as part of routine prenatal blood work and not typically verified immediately after the first visit.
B: Rubella vaccine - Administering the rubella vaccine during pregnancy is contraindicated as it poses a risk to the developing fetus.
C: Clean-catch urinalysis - While urinalysis is a common test in prenatal care to screen for urinary tract infections and other conditions, it is not typically the first test verified following
The nurse is providing care in PACU for a patient who just delivered a neonate via cesarean section. The patient reports tightness in her chest. Assessment findings include tachypnea, hypotension, and decreasing oxygen saturation levels. Which complication does the nurse report to the health care provider?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Postpartum hemorrhage
C. Surgical-site infection
D. Developing endometritis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. The patient's symptoms of chest tightness, tachypnea, hypotension, and decreasing oxygen saturation levels are indicative of a potential pulmonary embolism, which is a serious complication post-cesarean section. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing respiratory distress and cardiovascular compromise. The nurse should report this immediately to the healthcare provider for prompt intervention to prevent further complications.
Incorrect choices:
B: Postpartum hemorrhage - Symptoms of postpartum hemorrhage include excessive bleeding, not chest tightness and respiratory distress.
C: Surgical-site infection - Symptoms of surgical-site infection include redness, swelling, and drainage at the incision site, not chest tightness and respiratory distress.
D: Developing endometritis - Symptoms of endometritis include fever, pelvic pain, and abnormal vaginal discharge, not chest tightness and respiratory distress.
A recently licensed registered nurse is preparing to enter practice in an acute care facility and wants to practice within the guidelines of that state. When preparing to research the state nurse practice act, what information is important to obtain?
A. Content for the NCLEX
B. The members of the state board of nursing
C. Definition of legal scope of nursing practice
D. Definition of important terms related to nursing
Correct answer:
State nurse practice acts are critical legal frameworks that govern nursing practice within each jurisdiction, ensuring safe and competent care. For a newly licensed registered nurse, understanding the definition of the legal scope of nursing practice is essential, as it outlines what nurses are authorized to do, including specific tasks, responsibilities, and limitations in an acute care setting. Equally important is the definition of key terms related to nursing, which clarifies concepts like licensure, delegation, and accountability, helping the nurse navigate their role legally and ethically. While the NCLEX content is vital for licensure, it's a national exam and not state-specific. Knowing the members of the state board of nursing might be useful for context but isn't directly relevant to daily practice guidelines. The nurse practice act provides the foundational rules for compliance, protecting both the nurse and the public by setting clear professional boundaries and expectations.
You are on-scene with a patient who was struck by a car on her bicycle. She is conscious and alert but has a possible closed right mid-shaft femur fracture. The patient advises you that she is sixteen but does not need parental consent to be treated. Which of the following situations would make this statement true?
A. She can be treated under implied consent because her injury may become life-threatening
B. She is not an American citizen, visiting on a student visa
C. She is an emancipated minor granted by the court
D. She is an orphaned minor who lives alone
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: She is an emancipated minor granted by the court. This is true because an emancipated minor is legally recognized as an adult and can make medical decisions without parental consent. Emancipation typically requires a court order that grants the minor the legal status of an adult. In this case, the patient is sixteen and does not need parental consent because she has been granted emancipation by the court.
Choice A (implied consent) is incorrect because implied consent generally applies in emergency situations where the patient is unable to provide consent. In this case, the patient is conscious and capable of providing consent.
Choice B (not an American citizen) is incorrect because citizenship status does not impact a minor's ability to provide consent for medical treatment.
Choice D (orphaned minor living alone) is incorrect because being orphaned does not automatically grant a minor the legal status to make medical decisions without parental consent.
Research studies addressing alcohol intake and coronary disease protection suggest that?
A. Studies suggesting that red wine is better than other forms of alcohol in preventing coronary disease may confounded by lifestyle variables
B. There is a strong relationship between alcohol intake and decreased coronary artery disease mortality
C. It is clear that that the entire population would benefit from increased alcohol intake
D. Both
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (A):
1. Studies on alcohol intake and coronary disease are complex and involve various lifestyle factors.
2. Red wine is often associated with health benefits due to its antioxidants, but lifestyle factors may skew results.
3. Lifestyle variables such as diet, exercise, and socioeconomic status can influence the relationship between red wine intake and coronary disease.
4. Therefore, studies suggesting red wine is better may be confounded by these variables, making choice A the correct answer.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: This choice is too definitive and oversimplifies the relationship between alcohol intake and coronary artery disease.
C: Recommending increased alcohol intake for the entire population is not supported by current research and can have adverse health effects.
D: This choice is incorrect because the relationship between alcohol intake and coronary disease protection is not as straightforward as a simple "both" statement suggests.
You are on-scene with an adult patient who was found with an extremely altered level of consciousness, and a small amount of blood noted on his lips. There are no other obvious signs of trauma during the primary assessment other than a small tongue laceration. After ensuring an adequate airway, you discover the patient's small tongue laceration appears consistent with biting his tongue. He also has obviously swollen gums that do not appear to be caused by trauma. His vital signs are found to be within normal limits, and his pupils react to light, but his level of consciousness continues to be decreased to painful stimuli only. With the limited findings, which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the patient presentation?
A. A diabetic seizure most likely caused the patient's presentation
B. A metabolic coma is likely the cause of the patient's presentation
C. An epileptic seizure is likely responsible for causing the patient's condition
D. A cerebrovascular accident is likely the cause of the patient's condition
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: An epileptic seizure is likely responsible for causing the patient's condition. The rationale for this is as follows:
1. Tongue biting is a common occurrence during seizures, which is consistent with the small tongue laceration observed in the patient.
2. Swollen gums that are not caused by trauma can be a sign of oral injury during a seizure due to forceful clenching of the jaw.
3. The patient's decreased level of consciousness to painful stimuli is typical after a seizure, known as the postictal state.
4. Normal vital signs and reactive pupils suggest no immediate life-threatening emergency like a diabetic seizure, metabolic coma, or cerebrovascular accident.
Summary:
A: A diabetic seizure is unlikely due to the absence of associated signs such as altered blood sugar levels or diabetic history.
B: A metabolic coma is unlikely as vital signs are normal, and the presentation is more indicative of a seizure.
D: A cerebrovascular accident is unlikely as
A 36-year-old female presents to the GP with painful hands which started two weeks ago. She describes the pain as constant but worst in the mornings where it takes an hour or so for her hands to loosen up and become fully functional. She has no significant past medical history and is functionally independent. On examination, there is erythema, swelling, and tenderness of the metacarpophalangeal joints on both hands. She is not able to make a tight fist due to the discomfort. On systemic examination, there is nothing else of note and vital signs are all within normal limits.
A. Gout
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Septic arthritis
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Rheumatoid arthritis. The key features suggesting rheumatoid arthritis in this case are the symmetrical involvement of the metacarpophalangeal joints, morning stiffness lasting more than an hour, and systemic symptoms such as erythema and swelling. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune condition that typically presents with these symptoms.
Choice A: Gout typically presents with sudden onset of severe pain, redness, and swelling in a single joint, commonly the big toe. It is unlikely in this case due to the symmetrical joint involvement.
Choice C: Osteoarthritis is characterized by joint pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest. It usually affects weight-bearing joints like the knees and hips, not typically presenting with the described symptoms in the hands.
Choice D: Septic arthritis often presents with acute joint pain, fever, and systemic symptoms. It is less likely in this case as the patient does not have signs of systemic infection.
A Native American patient sadly describes a difficult childhood. The patient abused alcohol as a teenager but stopped 10 years ago. The patient now says, "I feel stupid and good for nothing. I don't help my people." How should the treatment team focus planning for this patient?
A. Psychopharmacological and somatic therapies should be central techniques.
B. Apply a psychoanalytical approach, focused on childhood trauma.
C. Depression and alcohol abuse should be treated concurrently.
D. Use a holistic approach, including mind, body, and spirit.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Use a holistic approach, including mind, body, and spirit. A holistic approach is essential for Native American patients as it considers their cultural beliefs and values. Native Americans often have a strong connection to their community, nature, and spirituality, so addressing all aspects of their well-being is crucial. This approach acknowledges the interconnectedness of the mind, body, and spirit in promoting healing and overall wellness.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Psychopharmacological and somatic therapies focus solely on biological aspects and may overlook the importance of cultural and spiritual factors in Native American healing practices.
B: While childhood trauma may be a contributing factor, focusing solely on psychoanalytical approaches may not address the holistic needs of the patient.
C: Treating depression and alcohol abuse concurrently is important, but it does not address the underlying cultural and spiritual needs of the patient.
A client is receiving chemotherapy through a peripheral IV line. What action by the nurse is most important?
A. Assessing the IV site every hour
B. Educating the client on side effects
C. Monitoring the client for nausea
D. Providing warm packs for comfort
Correct answer:
Chemotherapy drugs administered via peripheral IV can be vesicants, meaning they can cause severe tissue damage if they leak (extravasate) into surrounding tissues. Peripheral lines are more prone to this than central lines due to smaller vein size and less secure placement. Assessing the IV site hourly or per facility policy is the most important action to prevent extravasation, ensuring the line remains patent and no swelling, redness, or pain develops. Early detection allows prompt intervention, like stopping the infusion, to minimize harm. Educating about side effects and monitoring for nausea are key aspects of care but address systemic effects, not the immediate risk of local tissue injury. Warm packs might soothe discomfort but could worsen damage if extravasation occurs. Prioritizing IV site assessment reflects the nurse's role in safety and prevention, critical in oncology where chemotherapy's potency demands vigilant monitoring to protect the client from serious complications.
Predictors for successful treatment with antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV-positive patients include:
A. They respond to a low-potency treatment regimen
B. They have demonstrated resistance in the past and should respond to newer ART drugs
C. The patient is strictly adherent to the ART treatment regimen
D. Lower baseline CD4 T-cell count at baseline
Correct answer:
Strict adherence to the ART regimen is a critical predictor of success in HIV treatment, as it ensures consistent drug levels to suppress viral replication and prevent resistance. HIV's rapid mutation rate means even brief lapses (e.g., <95% adherence) can lead to virologic failure, per studies like those in JAIDS showing adherence directly correlates with undetectable viral loads and CD4 recovery. Option A, 'low-potency regimen response,' is outdated modern ART uses high-potency combinations (e.g., tenofovir/emtricitabine), not low-potency drugs. Option B, 'past resistance predicting success,' is illogical; prior resistance complicates therapy, requiring tailored regimens, not guaranteeing success. Option D, 'lower baseline CD4 count,' predicts poorer outcomes advanced disease (CD4 <200) limits immune recovery (START trial). Adherence, supported by WHO guidelines and clinical data, is the cornerstone of sustained viral suppression and long-term success, making C the definitive choice.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 16 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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