You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse has been working with Mrs. Griffin, a 71-year-old patient whose poorly controlled type 1 diabetes has led to numerous health problems. Over the past several years Mrs. Griffin has had several admissions to the hospital medical unit, and the nurse has often carried out health promotion interventions. Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining and promoting Mrs. Griffin's health?
A. The medical nurse
B. The community health nurse who has also worked with Mrs. Griffin
C. Mrs. Griffin's primary care provider
D. Mrs. Griffin
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Mrs. Griffin
In American healthcare, individual responsibility for health maintenance and promotion is a core value, rooted in autonomy and self-determination. Mrs. Griffin, as the patient, is ultimately accountable for her health choices adhering to diabetes management like insulin use, diet, and monitoring despite support from healthcare professionals. The medical nurse provides acute care education, the community nurse offers ongoing support, and the primary care provider prescribes and guides treatment, but none supplant her role. This reflects societal expectations that patients actively participate in their care, especially with chronic conditions like type 1 diabetes, where daily decisions impact outcomes. Nurses facilitate, educate, and empower, but Mrs. Griffin's engagement drives success, making her the ultimate arbiter of her health, a principle foundational to health promotion and patient-centered care.
Question 2
How would the nurse best describe the half life of a drug?
A. It is the time it takes for one half of the original available drug to be removed
B. It is the time it takes for the drug to reach half way to the peak level
C. It is the time it would take for a 50 mg tablet to be at 25 mgs remaining
D. It is the time it takes for the drug to be eliminated and non-effective
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — It is the time it takes for one half of the original available drug to be removed
The half-life of a drug refers to the duration required for the body to reduce the concentration of the drug in the bloodstream or tissues by 50% from its initial level. This pharmacokinetic property is crucial for understanding how long a drug remains active and how frequently it needs to be administered to maintain therapeutic effects. It reflects the body's ability to metabolize and excrete the drug, not the time to reach a certain potency or complete elimination. For example, if a drug starts at 100 mg, after one half-life, 50 mg remains, and after another, 25 mg remains, and so on. This concept helps nurses determine dosing schedules and assess potential accumulation or toxicity risks. Misinterpretations, like linking it to peak levels or total elimination, overlook its specific focus on the 50% reduction, which is a standard measure in pharmacology for all drugs, regardless of their initial dose.
Question 3
A 54-year-old man has just been diagnosed with small cell lung cancer. The patient asks the nurse why the doctor is not offering surgery as a treatment for his cancer. What fact about lung cancer treatment should inform the nurses response?
A. The cells in small cell cancer of the lung are not large enough to visualize in surgery
B. Small cell lung cancer is self-limiting in many patients and surgery should be delayed
C. Patients with small cell lung cancer are not normally stable enough to survive surgery
D. Small cell cancer of the lung grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Small cell cancer of the lung grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively
Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is rarely treated with surgery because it grows rapidly and metastasizes early and extensively, often presenting with distant spread (e.g., brain, bones) by diagnosis. Unlike non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), where surgery suits localized disease, SCLC's aggressive neuroendocrine nature drives early dissemination, rendering resection ineffective as a primary cure. Cell size doesn't limit visualization surgical feasibility hinges on containment, not microscopy. SCLC isn't self-limiting; it's fatal without treatment, progressing quickly, not delaying intervention. Patient stability varies, but surgery's exclusion stems from tumor behavior, not universal frailty. The nurse's response, rooted in SCLC's biology, clarifies why chemotherapy and radiation systemic therapies are standard, aligning with guidelines (e.g., NCCN) and helping the patient understand his treatment plan.
Question 4
A nurse is developing the teaching portion of a care plan for a patient with COPD. What would be the most important component for the nurse to emphasize?
A. Smoking up to one-half of a pack of cigarettes weekly is allowable
B. Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins can cause lung damage
C. Minor respiratory infections are considered to be self-limited and are not treated
D. Activities of daily living (ADLs) should be clustered in the early morning hours
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Chronic inhalation of indoor toxins can cause lung damage
The most important teaching component for a COPD patient is that chronic inhalation of indoor toxins (e.g., smoke, dust, chemicals) can cause lung damage, exacerbating airway obstruction and alveolar destruction. This environmental factor, alongside smoking, drives COPD progression by triggering inflammation and oxidative stress, worsening FEV1 decline. Allowing any smoking e.g., half a pack weekly contradicts cessation's necessity, as even minimal exposure sustains damage. Minor infections aren't self-limited in COPD; they disrupt fragile lung function, requiring prompt treatment to prevent exacerbations. Clustering ADLs in the morning ignores energy conservation needs pacing throughout the day reduces dyspnea. The nurse's emphasis on avoiding indoor toxins empowers the patient to control modifiable risks, complementing smoking cessation and medication, critical for slowing COPD's irreversible course.
Question 5
A patient requires repositioning every 2 hours. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel?
A. Determining the level of comfort
B. Changing the patient's position
C. Identifying immobility hazards
D. Assessing circulation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Changing the patient's position
The correct answer is B: 'Changing the patient's position.' Repositioning the patient involves physically moving and adjusting their position in bed, which is a task that can be safely delegated to nursing assistive personnel (NAP). This task does not require clinical judgment or assessment skills beyond the ability to follow guidelines for proper positioning. Choices A, C, and D involve assessments or judgments that require a higher level of training and knowledge, making them more appropriate for a nurse to perform. Choice A involves assessing comfort, which may involve subjective factors and individual preferences. Choice C involves identifying hazards related to immobility, which requires understanding the potential risks and complications associated with immobility. Choice D involves assessing circulation, which requires a higher level of clinical knowledge and understanding of circulatory issues.
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Question 6
You are monitoring the cardiac rhythm of your 60-year-old female patient with shortness of breath when you note the presence of a possible first-degree atrioventricular block in lead II on the EKG. Which of the following electrocardiogram abnormalities makes you think there is a first-degree AV block present?
A. There are more than one P wave for each QRS complex
B. A P-R interval greater than five small boxes (0.20 seconds) wide on the electrocardiogram tracing
C. The P-R intervals become progressively longer until a QRS complex is dropped altogether
D. The P waves are present but bear no relationship to the QRS complexes
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: A P-R interval greater than five small boxes (0.20 seconds) wide on the electrocardiogram tracing. In first-degree AV block, there is a delay in conduction from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in a prolonged P-R interval on the EKG. This delay is represented by a P-R interval greater than 0.20 seconds. This finding is characteristic of first-degree AV block.
Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect:
A: There are more than one P wave for each QRS complex - This describes a condition called atrial fibrillation, where multiple P waves are present but not associated with QRS complexes.
C: The P-R intervals become progressively longer until a QRS complex is dropped altogether - This describes a Mobitz Type II second-degree AV block, where there is a sudden block of conduction without a progressive increase in P-R intervals.
D: The P waves are present but
Motorcycle crash, noisy respirations, apneic, hematoma in pharynx, airway management?
A. "Inserting an oropharyngeal airway"
B. "Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway"
C. "Performing a surgical cricothyroidotomy"
D. "Performing fiberoptic-guided nasotracheal intubation"
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: "Inserting an oropharyngeal airway." In this scenario of a motorcycle crash with noisy respirations, apnea, and a hematoma in the pharynx, the patient is likely experiencing airway obstruction. An oropharyngeal airway helps maintain a patent airway by preventing the collapse of the tongue and soft tissues in the oropharynx. It does not require visualization or manipulation of the upper airway structures, making it the most suitable initial intervention in this emergent situation.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: "Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway" - Nasopharyngeal airways are not recommended in the presence of facial trauma or suspected basilar skull fracture due to the risk of exacerbating the injury.
C: "Performing a surgical cricothyroidotomy" - This is an invasive procedure reserved for extreme cases of airway obstruction when other methods fail.
D
While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a significant amount of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history?
A. Does your baby seem to startle with loud noises?'
B. Has your baby had any surgeries on her ears?'
C. Have you noticed any drainage from her ears?'
D. How many ear infections has your baby had since birth?'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: "Does your baby seem to startle with loud noises?" This question is relevant because exposure to aspirin during pregnancy can potentially lead to hearing loss in the infant. Aspirin is known to cause ototoxicity, affecting the auditory nerve and leading to hearing problems. Therefore, asking about the baby's response to loud noises can help identify any potential hearing issues related to the aspirin exposure during pregnancy.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they focus on ear-related issues, such as surgeries, drainage, and infections. While these are valid concerns, they are not directly related to the potential hearing loss caused by aspirin exposure during pregnancy. Hence, these options are less relevant in this context compared to the correct answer, which directly addresses the possible consequence of aspirin intake during pregnancy on the infant's hearing.
What complications can cocaine and methamphetamine use in pregnancy cause?
A. seizures
B. hypotonic contractions
C. prolonged second stage labor
D. prolonged first stage labor
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Prolonged second stage labor. Cocaine and methamphetamine use in pregnancy can lead to vasoconstriction, decreased blood flow to the uterus, and reduced oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in uterine hyperactivity and fetal distress during labor. This can cause the second stage of labor to be prolonged as the uterus may struggle to effectively contract and progress labor.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Seizures - While cocaine and methamphetamine use can lead to seizures in pregnant individuals, this is not directly related to labor complications.
B: Hypotonic contractions - Cocaine and methamphetamine use are more likely to cause hypertonic contractions (excessive uterine contractions) rather than hypotonic contractions.
D: Prolonged first stage labor - Cocaine and methamphetamine use are more likely to impact the second stage of labor rather than the first stage.
A theory is a set of concepts, definitions, relationships and assumptions that:
A. Explain a phenomenon
B. Formulate legislation
C. Measure nursing functions
D. Reflect the domain of nursing practice
Correct answer:
A theory in nursing, like Orem's Self-Care Deficit, comprises concepts (e.g., self-care), definitions (clarifying terms), relationships (how concepts interact), and assumptions (underlying beliefs), all to explain phenomena patterns or events like patient recovery. This explanatory role guides practice by providing a lens to understand health-related behaviors or outcomes. Formulating legislation is unrelated; theories inform policy indirectly but aren't legal tools. Measuring nursing functions might be a research outcome, not a theory's purpose, which is broader and conceptual. Reflecting the domain of nursing practice describes what theories encompass but not their active function explanation drives their utility. By explaining phenomena, theories offer nurses frameworks to predict, interpret, and address patient needs, making this the most accurate description of a theory's role in nursing science.
Which assessment finding is most concerning for a patient receiving treatment for pneumonia?
A. Crackles heard in the lung bases.
B. Oxygen saturation of 85%.
C. Cough with yellow sputum production.
D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Oxygen saturation of 85%. This assessment finding is most concerning because it indicates severe hypoxemia, which can lead to tissue damage and respiratory failure. A low oxygen saturation level of 85% requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications.
Rationale:
1. Crackles heard in the lung bases (Choice A) are common in pneumonia but do not indicate severe hypoxemia.
2. Cough with yellow sputum production (Choice C) is a common symptom of pneumonia but does not directly reflect the patient's oxygenation status.
3. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute (Choice D) is within the normal range and may not necessarily indicate severe respiratory distress.
In summary, the oxygen saturation of 85% is the most concerning assessment finding as it directly reflects the patient's oxygenation status and requires immediate attention to prevent complications.
A patient was admitted to the mental health unit after arguing with co-workers and threatening to kill them. He is diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. On the unit he is aloof and suspicious. He mentioned that two physicians he saw talking were plotting to kill him. On the basis of data gathered at this point, which two primary nursing diagnoses should the nurse consider?
A. Disturbed thought processes and Risk for other-directed violence
B. Spiritual distress and Social isolation
C. Risk for loneliness and Knowledge deficit
D. Disturbed personal identity and Nonadherence
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Disturbed thought processes and Risk for other-directed violence.
1. Disturbed thought processes: The patient's delusion of being plotted against by the physicians indicates impaired thought processes typical of paranoid schizophrenia.
2. Risk for other-directed violence: The patient's threatening behavior towards co-workers suggests a potential for violent acts towards others due to his paranoid beliefs.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
B: Spiritual distress and Social isolation are not primary concerns given the patient's acute symptoms of paranoia and risk for violence.
C: Risk for loneliness and Knowledge deficit are not crucial at this point as the patient's primary issues are related to paranoia and violence.
D: Disturbed personal identity and Nonadherence are not relevant to the immediate safety and mental health concerns presented by the patient.
The nurse and a client are discussing instructions for self-care after discharge. The client's husband says, 'I can't take care of her by myself. We need home health like we had before she came to the hospital.' This statement reflects which antecedent condition
A. Task interdependence
B. Resource competition
C. Structural conflict
D. Differences in values and beliefs
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Differences in values and beliefs. The husband's statement indicates a difference in values and beliefs between him and the nurse/client regarding the need for home health care. This antecedent condition can lead to potential conflict or miscommunication. Task interdependence (A) refers to the extent to which individuals need to work together to achieve a common goal, which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Resource competition (B) involves competition for resources, which is not evident in the husband's statement. Structural conflict (C) pertains to conflicts arising from organizational structures or processes, which are not directly relevant to the scenario. In summary, the husband's statement reflects a difference in values and beliefs, highlighting a potential source of conflict or misunderstanding in the discussion about self-care instructions after discharge.
A patient who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for tuberculosis calls the clinic and reports having orange discolored urine and tears. Which response by the nurse reflects accurate knowledge about the medication and the patient’s illness?
A. Ask the patient about any visual changes in red-green color discrimination.
B. Question the patient about experiencing shortness of breath, hives, or itching.
C. Explain that orange discolored urine and tears are normal while taking this medication.
D. Advise the patient to stop the drug and report the symptoms to the health care provider.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because orange discoloration of urine and tears is a known side effect of rifampin. This is due to the drug's ability to color bodily fluids. It is important for the nurse to reassure the patient that this is a normal and expected reaction to the medication.
Option A is incorrect as it pertains to visual changes in red-green color discrimination, which is not a common side effect of rifampin. Option B is also incorrect as it relates to symptoms such as shortness of breath, hives, or itching, which are not typically associated with rifampin use.
Option D is incorrect because stopping the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can lead to treatment failure and potential drug resistance. It is important for the patient to continue taking the medication as prescribed and to report any concerns or side effects to the healthcare provider for proper management.
A __________ is a set of learned beliefs, values, and behaviors.
A. Community
B. Civilization
C. Culture
D. Cultivation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Culture. Culture refers to the set of learned beliefs, values, and behaviors shared by a group of people. It encompasses language, traditions, customs, arts, and social norms. It shapes individuals' identities and guides their interactions within society.
Choice A, Community, refers to a group of people living in the same area. While communities may share aspects of culture, they do not fully encompass the complexity of culture itself.
Choice B, Civilization, refers to a complex society characterized by urban development, social stratification, and advanced cultural and technological achievements. While civilization may have its own culture, it is broader in scope than just cultural aspects.
Choice D, Cultivation, refers to the process of preparing and working on land for crops. It is not related to learned beliefs, values, and behaviors shared by a group of people.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 46 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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