You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The newly licensed practical/vocational nurse begins work on a hospital unit where LPNs/LVNs are allowed to start intravenous fluids. The physician orders intravenous fluids to be started on one of this nurse's assigned clients. Which of the following actions would be most necessary on the part of this newly hired and newly licensed nurse before starting an intravenous on the client?
A. Check the hospital policy and check on any certification required.
B. Ask another nurse to do a supervised check on administering IVs.
C. Ask one of your nursing-school instructors to refresh your skills.
D. Take a continuing-education IV course to make sure you have the skills.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Check the hospital policy and check on any certification required.
For a newly licensed practical/vocational nurse, ensuring competence and compliance before starting intravenous fluids is paramount. Checking hospital policy and certification requirements is the most necessary step because it confirms the nurse's legal scope of practice and institutional guidelines. Hospitals often have specific protocols dictating who can perform procedures like IV initiation, including any required training or certification beyond basic licensure. This step protects the client from potential harm due to inexperience and shields the nurse from liability if untrained. Asking another nurse for supervision or consulting an instructor might supplement skill verification but doesn't address formal authorization. Taking a continuing-education course is proactive but impractical as an immediate prerequisite. This action aligns with professional responsibility and patient safety, ensuring the nurse operates within established boundaries before proceeding.
Question 2
Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual's response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.
A. Neuman
B. Johnson
C. Watson
D. Parse
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Neuman
Betty Neuman's Systems Model views nursing as a unique profession focused on managing stressors that disrupt an individual's stability. Introduced in the 1970s, her theory categorizes stressors as intrapersonal (e.g., emotions), interpersonal (e.g., family dynamics), and extrapersonal (e.g., financial strain). Nurses assess these variables and use primary (prevention), secondary (treatment), or tertiary (recovery) interventions to maintain or restore wellness. This holistic approach contrasts with Johnson's behavioral focus, Watson's caring emphasis, and Parse's human becoming perspective. For example, a patient with diabetes might face intrapersonal stress (fear), interpersonal conflict (family support), and extrapersonal pressure (cost of insulin) Neuman's nurse addresses all three to stabilize the client's system. Her model's flexibility makes it widely applicable in community health and acute care, emphasizing nursing's role in comprehensive stressor mitigation.
Question 3
Culture media is sterilized by which of the following method?
A. Autoclaving
B. Boiling
C. Hot air oven
D. Ionizing radiation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Autoclaving
Sterilization of culture media is critical in microbiology to eliminate contaminants. Autoclaving (choice A) uses moist heat under pressure (typically 121°C at 15 psi for 15-20 minutes) to kill bacteria, spores, and viruses, making it the gold standard for sterilizing liquid media like agar or broth. Boiling (choice B) at 100°C can kill vegetative bacteria but not heat-resistant spores, rendering it inadequate for complete sterilization. Hot air oven (choice C) employs dry heat (160-170°C for 2 hours) and is suitable for glassware, not liquid media, as it may evaporate or degrade nutrients. Ionizing radiation (choice D) is effective for heat-sensitive materials (e.g., plastics), but it's less common for routine media preparation due to cost and equipment needs. Autoclaving is the correct answer (A) because it ensures thorough sterilization of culture media, a process nurses and lab personnel rely on to maintain aseptic conditions for accurate diagnostic cultures.
Question 4
The following has been found to act as a male contraceptive without affecting libido or potency:
A. Cyproterone acetate
B. Goserelin
C. Centchroman
D. Gossypol
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Centchroman
Rationale for Correct Answer C (Centchroman):
1. Centchroman is a non-hormonal male contraceptive that acts by inhibiting sperm production without affecting libido or potency.
2. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator, which helps in contraception without affecting male sexual function.
3. Centchroman's mechanism of action does not interfere with testosterone levels or sexual desire, making it an effective male contraceptive option.
4. Studies have shown that centchroman is safe and well-tolerated, making it a suitable choice for male contraception.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Cyproterone acetate: It is a hormonal contraceptive that can affect libido and potency due to its anti-androgenic properties.
B. Goserelin: It is a hormonal drug that suppresses testosterone production, potentially affecting libido and potency.
D. Gossypol: It is a plant-derived compound that can impact sperm production and fertility without preserving libido and potency.
Question 5
A patient in her first trimester of pregnancy is diagnosed with rubella. Which of these statements is correct regarding the significance of this in relation to the infant's hearing?
A. Rubella may affect the mother's hearing but not the infant's.
B. Rubella can damage the infant's organ of Corti, which will impair hearing.
C. Rubella is only dangerous to the infant in the second trimester of pregnancy.
D. Rubella can impair the development of CN VIII and thus affect hearing.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Rubella can damage the infant's organ of Corti, which will impair hearing.
The correct answer is B: Rubella can damage the infant's organ of Corti, which will impair hearing. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and infect the developing fetus, leading to congenital rubella syndrome. This syndrome can cause damage to various organs including the organ of Corti in the inner ear, leading to hearing impairment. This occurs mainly when the infection happens during the first trimester when the organ systems are developing.
Incorrect choices:
A: Rubella may affect the mother's hearing but not the infant's - This is incorrect as rubella can indeed affect the infant's hearing through congenital rubella syndrome.
C: Rubella is only dangerous to the infant in the second trimester of pregnancy - This is incorrect as rubella can harm the infant's hearing in the first trimester as well.
D: Rubella can impair the development of CN VIII and thus affect hearing - While rubella can affect hearing, it primarily does so by damaging the organ of Corti
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Question 6
One of the primary reasons for conducting nursing research is to:
A. Decrease costs associated with client care
B. Generate knowledge to guide practice
C. Allow nurses to delegate more tasks
D. Assist physicians in their research
Correct answer:
Nursing research's primary aim is to generate knowledge to guide practice, building a scientific foundation that informs and improves care delivery. This involves studying interventions like pain management techniques or outcomes, like recovery rates, to create evidence-based guidelines that enhance safety and effectiveness. Decreasing costs, while a potential byproduct, isn't the core focus; research prioritizes quality over economics. Delegating tasks relates to workflow, not research goals, and assisting physicians, though collaborative, isn't nursing's aim its focus is autonomous advancement. This knowledge generation refines assessment, planning, and intervention, ensuring nurses address client needs with precision. For example, research on pressure ulcer prevention shapes protocols, directly impacting practice. This purpose elevates nursing as a science-driven profession, distinct from mere support roles, fostering innovation and accountability in healthcare.
A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give the client?
A. "Rashes are very common, especially if you have dry skin. Did it go away on its own?"
B. "Virtually all medications have adverse effects. It sounds like this could have been an adverse effect of the antibiotic."
C. "It's unlikely that your doctor will prescribe an antibiotic for what seems to be a minor viral infection, so we shouldn't be concerned about that rash."
D. "We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it."
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. If a client reports developing a rash when taking a specific medication, even if they are not aware of any allergies, it is crucial to document this information. This is necessary to prevent future allergic reactions. Identifying the exact medication that caused the rash is essential as the client could have an allergy to it. Providing this information allows healthcare providers to avoid prescribing the same medication again, which could potentially lead to more severe allergic reactions or life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the importance of documenting the specific medication that caused the adverse reaction or the potential risks of repeating the medication. Simply attributing the rash to common occurrences, adverse effects of medications in general, or assuming the rash is insignificant in the current context can overlook the critical aspect of identifying and avoiding allergens.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has poor gas exchange. Which action by the nurse would support the patient's ventilation?
A. Have the patient rest in bed with the head elevated to 15 to 20 degrees.
B. Encourage the patient to sit up at the bedside in a chair and lean forward.
C. Ask the patient to rest in bed in a high-Fowler's position with the knees flexed.
D. Ask the patient to rest in bed in a high-Fowler's position with the knees flexed.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Encourage the patient to sit up at the bedside in a chair and lean forward. This position, known as the orthopneic position, helps improve ventilation in COPD patients by reducing the pressure on the diaphragm and allowing for better expansion of the lungs. By sitting up and leaning forward, the patient can maximize their lung capacity and facilitate better gas exchange.
A: Having the patient rest in bed with the head elevated to 15 to 20 degrees may help with breathing comfort but does not provide the same level of lung expansion as the orthopneic position.
C: Resting in bed in a high-Fowler's position with the knees flexed may help with respiratory effort but does not promote optimal ventilation like sitting up in a chair and leaning forward.
D: This is a duplicate of option C.
In summary, option B is the best choice as it directly supports improved ventilation and gas exchange in COPD patients compared to the other options.
You are working a respiratory arrest patient and have just successfully placed a combi-tube in your apneic patient. What should you do if the chest fails to rise appropriately and gastric sounds are present?
A. Secure tube, and ventilate through tube #1
B. Confirm placement with CO2 detector before ventilating through tube #1
C. Remove the BVM from tube #1 and ventilate through tube #2
D. Pull the combi-tube back approximately 2 cm and reassess
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Remove the BVM from tube #1 and ventilate through tube #2. If gastric sounds are present along with inadequate chest rise, it indicates that the tube may be in the esophagus rather than the trachea. By removing the BVM from tube #1 and ventilating through tube #2, you can provide ventilation directly to the lungs and avoid insufflating air into the stomach. This step ensures proper oxygenation and ventilation while preventing complications from gastric insufflation. It is essential to act promptly to optimize patient outcomes.
Incorrect answers:
A: Securing the tube and ventilating through tube #1 would continue to insufflate air into the stomach, worsening the situation.
B: Confirming placement with a CO2 detector before ventilating through tube #1 may delay appropriate intervention, risking patient harm.
D: Pulling the combi-tube back approximately 2 cm without addressing the issue of gastric sounds and inadequate chest rise would
When assessing the respiratory system of a 4-year-old child, which of these findings would the nurse expect?
A. Crepitus palpated at the costochondral junctions.
B. No diaphragmatic excursion as a result of a child's decreased inspiratory volume.
C. Presence of bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields.
D. Irregular respiratory pattern and a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute at rest.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields are an expected finding in a 4-year-old child. This is due to the normal anatomy and physiology of a child's respiratory system at that age. Bronchovesicular breath sounds are commonly heard in children and are a combination of bronchial and vesicular sounds. These sounds are normal in children up to the age of 5 and are typically heard in the peripheral lung fields.
Choice A is incorrect because crepitus palpated at the costochondral junctions is not an expected finding in a 4-year-old child's respiratory assessment. Crepitus may indicate air or gas under the skin and is not a normal finding in a respiratory assessment.
Choice B is incorrect because no diaphragmatic excursion due to decreased inspiratory volume is not a typical finding in a 4-year-old child. Children of this age should have adequate diaphragmatic excursion, and a lack of it may indicate respiratory
A nurse is helping at a health fair at a local mall. When taking blood pressures on a variety of people, the nurse keeps in mind that:
A. After menopause, blood pressure readings in women are usually lower than those in men.
B. The blood pressure of a Black adult is usually higher than that of a White adult of the same age.
C. Blood pressure measurements in people who are overweight should be the same as those of people who are at a normal weight.
D. A teenager's blood pressure reading will be lower than that of an adult.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because research has shown that on average, Black adults tend to have higher blood pressure compared to White adults of the same age. This is due to a combination of genetic, lifestyle, and environmental factors. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these differences to provide appropriate care and interventions.
Choice A is incorrect because blood pressure readings in women after menopause actually tend to increase due to hormonal changes.
Choice C is incorrect because being overweight is a risk factor for high blood pressure, so individuals who are overweight are more likely to have higher blood pressure readings compared to those at a normal weight.
Choice D is incorrect because a teenager's blood pressure reading can vary, but it is not always lower than that of an adult. Teenagers can also have high blood pressure, especially if they have risk factors such as obesity or a family history of hypertension.
Which question should a nurse leader ask to uncover the root of a conflict between two team members?
A. "Who started this?'
B. "Why do you feel this way?'
C. "What's the quickest fix?'
D. "When did this happen?'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: "Why do you feel this way?" This question is essential for uncovering the underlying emotions and reasons behind the conflict between team members. By asking about their feelings, the nurse leader can identify the root cause and address it effectively.
Explanation:
1. Understanding Emotions: Conflict often arises from underlying emotions or perceptions. Asking why helps in exploring these feelings.
2. Root Cause Analysis: By delving into the reasons behind their feelings, the nurse leader can identify the core issue causing the conflict.
3. Empathy and Communication: This question shows empathy towards team members and fosters open communication, leading to a more meaningful resolution.
Summary:
A: "Who started this?" focuses on blame rather than resolution.
C: "What's the quickest fix?" prioritizes speed over understanding the root cause.
D: "When did this happen?" focuses on timing rather than emotions and reasons behind the conflict.
A 25-year-old woman in her fifth month of pregnancy has a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. In reviewing her previous examination, the nurse notes that her blood pressure in her second month was 124/80 mm Hg. In evaluating this change, what does the nurse know to be true?
A. This decline in blood pressure is the result of peripheral vasodilatation and is an expected change.
B. This decline in blood pressure is the result of the parasympathetic effect of hormones secreted during pregnancy and is an expected change.
C. This change in blood pressure is not an expected finding because it means a decrease in cardiac output.
D. This decline in blood pressure means a decrease in circulating blood volume, which is dangerous for the fetus.
Correct answer:
Step-by-step rationale:
1. During pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease due to hormonal and physiological changes.
2. The decline in blood pressure is attributed to peripheral vasodilatation, allowing for increased blood flow to the placenta.
3. This vasodilatation is a normal adaptive response to support the growing fetus.
4. The parasympathetic effect of pregnancy hormones contributes to the vasodilatation and helps regulate blood pressure.
5. Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the physiological changes expected during pregnancy.
Summary of other choices:
- Choice B incorrectly attributes the decline solely to the parasympathetic effect, ignoring the role of vasodilatation.
- Choice C is incorrect as a decrease in blood pressure does not necessarily mean a decrease in cardiac output during pregnancy.
- Choice D is incorrect as a decrease in blood pressure does not always indicate a dangerous decrease in blood volume for the fetus.
A 21-year-old college senior presents to your clinic, complaining of shortness of breath and a nonproductive nocturnal cough. She states she used to feel this way only with extreme exercise, but lately she has felt this way continuously. She denies any other upper respiratory symptoms, chest pain, gastrointestinal symptoms, or urinary tract symptoms. Her past medical history is significant only for seasonal allergies. On examination, auscultation of her chest shows decreased air movement and a high-pitched whistling on expiration in all lobes. Percussion reveals resonant lungs.
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C. Asthma
D. Pneumonia
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Asthma. The key clues in the scenario are the patient's age, nocturnal cough, continuous shortness of breath, history of seasonal allergies, and physical exam findings of wheezing on expiration in all lobes. These are classic signs of asthma. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, leading to symptoms such as cough, shortness of breath, and wheezing. The patient's history of seasonal allergies further supports the diagnosis of asthma, as allergies are a common trigger for asthma exacerbations.
Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Spontaneous pneumothorax typically presents with sudden-onset chest pain and shortness of breath, not a gradual onset as described in the scenario.
B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is more common in older individuals with a history of smoking. The absence of smoking history and the patient's age make COPD
The public health nurse is studying the proportion of the population in a certain county that had pneumonia during the winter months. Which epidemiological measure will the nurse use?
A. Attack rate
B. Incidence rate
C. Prevalence rate
D. Risk ratio
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Prevalence rate. In this case, the nurse is studying the proportion of the population that had pneumonia during the winter months. Prevalence rate measures the total number of existing cases in the population at a specific point in time, which aligns with the nurse's objective to study the proportion of the population affected by pneumonia during the winter months.
Incorrect choices:
A: Attack rate measures the proportion of people exposed to a particular factor who develop the disease.
B: Incidence rate measures the number of new cases of a disease that develop in a population over a specific period.
D: Risk ratio compares the risk of developing a disease in the exposed group to the risk in the non-exposed group.
In summary, prevalence rate is the appropriate measure as it focuses on the total number of existing cases of pneumonia in the population, while the other choices do not match the nurse's objective in this scenario.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 22 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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