You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is preparing to measure the vital signs of a 6-month-old infant. Which action by the nurse is correct?
A. Respirations are measured; then pulse and temperature.
B. Vital signs should be measured more frequently than in an adult.
C. Procedures are explained to the parent, and the infant is encouraged to handle the equipment.
D. The nurse should first perform the physical examination to allow the infant to become more familiar with her and then measure the infant's vital signs.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Respirations are measured; then pulse and temperature.
The correct answer is A because in infants, it is recommended to measure respirations first, followed by pulse and temperature. Infants have irregular breathing patterns, so measuring respirations first allows for the most accurate reading. Pulse and temperature can be affected by handling the infant, so they should be measured after respirations.
Choice B is incorrect because vital signs in infants are typically measured at the same frequency as in adults, unless there are specific concerns or conditions.
Choice C is incorrect because involving the parent in the procedure and encouraging the infant to handle the equipment may not be appropriate or necessary for measuring vital signs accurately.
Choice D is incorrect because it is not necessary to perform a physical examination before measuring vital signs in an infant. It is important to follow the standard sequence of measuring respirations, then pulse, and temperature for accurate readings.
Question 2
Which of the following behaviors by Nurse Jane Robles demonstrates that she understands well the elements of effecting charting?
A. She signs her charting as follows: J.R
B. She writes in the chart using a no. 2 pencils.
C. She noted: appetite is good this afternoon.
D. She signs on the medication sheet after administering the medication.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — She signs on the medication sheet after administering the medication.
Effective charting requires accuracy, clarity, and accountability, adhering to legal and professional standards. Signing the medication sheet after administering medication, as Nurse Jane does, exemplifies this by confirming the intervention occurred, ensuring patient safety, and providing a verifiable record. This practice aligns with the 'Five Rights' of medication administration and reduces error risks, such as double-dosing. Conversely, signing as 'J.R.' lacks full identification (name and title), compromising accountability. Using a pencil risks erasure or alteration, undermining record integrity, as permanent ink is standard. Noting 'appetite is good' is subjective and lacks detail (e.g., meal percentage consumed), reducing its clinical value. Nurse Jane's action of signing post-medication administration reflects a strong grasp of charting's role in care continuity and safety, making it the best demonstration of effective documentation principles.
Question 3
A nurse believes a new mouth care procedure (MCP) is causing more mouth problems than it
A. Which of the following must be present for the nurse to go to administration with confidence that the MCP is causing problems? (Select all that apply.)
B. A plausible explanation of how the new MCP could cause harm
C. A strong feeling that the MCP is the cause
D. Consistently seeing mouth inflammation in many of the patients who have received the MCP
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — A plausible explanation of how the new MCP could cause harm
Rationale for Correct Answer (B): A plausible explanation of how the new MCP could cause harm is crucial for the nurse to confidently present concerns to administration. Without understanding how the MCP could be causing issues, it would be challenging to convince administration of the need for changes. This step ensures that the nurse has a solid basis for their argument and can clearly articulate the potential risks associated with the new procedure.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: While having specific criteria present can strengthen the case, it is not the primary factor for determining if the MCP is causing problems.
C: Relying solely on personal feelings or intuition is not sufficient evidence to support the claim that the MCP is causing harm.
D: Observing consistent mouth inflammation is important but does not provide a clear causal relationship between the MCP and the issues, lacking the necessary explanation of how harm is being caused.
Question 4
When ethical dilemmas arise, what should newly licensed nurses expect and identify as an ethical dilemma?
A. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit demonstrates signs of chemical impairment.
B. A nurse overhears another nurse telling an older adult client that if he doesn't stay in bed, she will have to apply restraints.
C. A family has conflicting feelings about the initiation of enteral tube feedings for their father, who is terminally ill.
D. A client who is terminally ill hesitates to name their partner on their durable power of attorney form.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — A family has conflicting feelings about the initiation of enteral tube feedings for their father, who is terminally ill.
An ethical dilemma involves a situation where there are conflicting values or principles that make it difficult to make a clear decision. In the given scenarios, option C best represents an ethical dilemma as the family has conflicting feelings about initiating enteral tube feedings for their terminally ill father. This situation presents a clash between different values and beliefs, making it challenging to reach a resolution. Options A, B, and D do not illustrate conflicting values or principles that characterize an ethical dilemma. Option A describes a nurse's impairment, which is a concern but not a direct ethical dilemma. Option B depicts a potential breach of client autonomy and restraint use, which is an ethical issue but not a true ethical dilemma. Option D involves a client's personal decision regarding a durable power of attorney form, which, although important, does not present conflicting values or principles that define an ethical dilemma.
Question 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle accident and the care team suspects that the patient has developed pleurisy. Which of the nurses assessment findings would best corroborate this diagnosis?
A. The patient is experiencing painless hemoptysis
B. The patients arterial blood gases (ABGs) are normal, but he demonstrates increased work of breathing
C. The patients oxygen saturation level is below 88%, but he denies shortness of breath
D. The patients pain intensifies when he coughs or takes a deep breath
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The patients pain intensifies when he coughs or takes a deep breath
Pleurisy, inflammation of the pleural membranes, is characterized by sharp pain that worsens with respiratory movements like coughing or deep breathing due to friction between the inflamed parietal and visceral pleura. This pain is typically unilateral and may radiate, but its key feature is its exacerbation with chest motion, making it a hallmark finding in this diagnosis. Painless hemoptysis suggests a different pathology, such as a pulmonary embolism or malignancy, not pleurisy. Normal ABGs with increased work of breathing could indicate early respiratory distress but lacks specificity for pleurisy. Low oxygen saturation without dyspnea might suggest chronic hypoxia or a shunt, not directly supporting pleurisy, which usually causes pain-driven shortness of breath. The nurse's finding of intensified pain during coughing or deep breathing aligns with the pathophysiology of pleural irritation post-trauma, strongly corroborating the suspected diagnosis.
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Question 6
In a patient with COPD, the risk of postoperative pulmonary complications increases with:
A. Wheezing on preoperative examination.
B. A history of preoperative cough.
C. Low body mass index (BMI).
D. A serum albumin concentration less than 35 mg litreâ»Â¹.
Correct answer:
Postoperative pulmonary complications in COPD patients are influenced by disease severity and patient condition. Wheezing indicates active airway obstruction and inflammation, directly increasing the risk of complications like atelectasis or pneumonia due to impaired ventilation and secretion clearance. A preoperative cough may suggest irritation or infection but is less specific than wheezing as a risk predictor. Low BMI reflects malnutrition, a known risk factor, but its impact is less immediate than active respiratory symptoms. Low serum albumin (<35 g/L, not mg/L as stated) also indicates poor nutritional status and healing capacity, elevating risk, but wheezing is more directly tied to airway dynamics. Regional anesthesia may reduce complications compared to general anesthesia, but the question focuses on risk factors. Wheezing's presence signals acute respiratory compromise, making it the strongest preoperative indicator of postoperative issues.
A client is receiving heparin sodium by continuous intravenous infusion. The nurse monitors the client for which adverse effect of this therapy?
A. decreased blood pressure
B. increased pulse rate
C. ecchymoses
D. tinnitus
Correct answer:
Heparin sodium is an anticoagulant administered to prevent or treat blood clots by inhibiting clotting factors. Its primary adverse effect is an increased risk of bleeding due to its interference with the coagulation process. The nurse must vigilantly monitor for signs of hemorrhage, such as ecchymoses, which are subcutaneous bruises indicating blood vessel leakage under the skin. These visible marks are a key indicator of bleeding risk, alongside other signs like gum bleeding or tarry stools. While decreased blood pressure or increased pulse rate might occur secondary to significant blood loss, they aren't direct adverse effects of heparin itself. Tinnitus, a ringing in the ears, is unrelated to heparin's action. Monitoring for ecchymoses ensures early detection of bleeding complications, allowing timely intervention to adjust the dose or administer antidotes like protamine sulfate, critical in maintaining patient safety during anticoagulant therapy.
The nurse is caring for a patient at risk for atelectasis. The nurse implements a first-line measure to prevent atelectasis development in the patient. What is an example of a first-line measure to minimize atelectasis?
A. Incentive spirometry
B. Intermittent positive-pressure breathing (IPPB)
C. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
D. Bronchoscopy
Correct answer:
Atelectasis, the collapse of alveoli, is prevented primarily by promoting lung expansion and airway clearance, making incentive spirometry a first-line measure. This device encourages deep breathing, increasing lung volume and reopening collapsed alveoli, especially in at-risk patients (e.g., postoperative, immobile). It empowers patients to actively improve ventilation, reducing mucus plugging and enhancing gas exchange. IPPB and PEEP, while effective, are advanced interventions requiring equipment and are used when first-line methods fail IPPB delivers pressure to inflate lungs, and PEEP maintains airway pressure in ventilated patients. Bronchoscopy removes obstructions but is invasive, reserved for severe cases. Incentive spirometry's simplicity, accessibility, and efficacy in stimulating natural breathing mechanics make it the nurse's go-to strategy, supported by evidence for preventing postoperative atelectasis and improving respiratory outcomes.
Which of the following statements about mealtime is true?
A. Social interaction is an important part of mealtime.
B. Nursing assistants should do everything for residents during mealtime so residents will not be anxious.
C. Mealtime is a good time for nursing assistants to chat with colleagues since the residents are busy eating.
D. Nursing assistants should let residents know when their meal does not look appetizing.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because social interaction plays a crucial role in mealtime, enhancing residents' overall dining experience and well-being. Engaging in conversations and fostering connections during meals can promote a sense of community, reduce isolation, and improve residents' emotional and mental health.
Choice B is incorrect because it promotes dependence and undermines residents' independence and dignity. Nursing assistants should support residents in mealtime activities while encouraging their autonomy.
Choice C is incorrect as it prioritizes personal conversations over residents' needs and fails to recognize the importance of providing individualized care during mealtimes.
Choice D is incorrect because it may negatively impact residents' dining experience by potentially discouraging them from eating. Instead, nursing assistants should offer support and alternatives if meals are unappetizing while respecting residents' choices.
The second phase in the critical thinking process entails:
A. Exploration of the issue
B. Induction of an event
C. Appraisal of the situation
D. Integration of decision
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Appraisal of the situation. In the second phase of the critical thinking process, it is essential to evaluate and assess all relevant information and perspectives regarding the issue at hand. This helps in understanding the complexity of the situation, identifying biases or assumptions, and determining the credibility of sources. By appraising the situation, one can make informed decisions based on logical reasoning and evidence.
Summary:
A: Exploration of the issue - This is typically done in the initial phase of critical thinking where the problem or question is identified.
B: Induction of an event - Induction involves making generalizations based on specific observations and is not specifically related to the second phase of critical thinking.
D: Integration of decision - This is a later stage where decisions are synthesized based on the appraisal of the situation, making it an incorrect choice for the second phase.
Jake is complaining of shortness of breath. The nurse assesses his respiratory rate to be 30 breaths per minute and documents that Jake is tachypneic. The nurse understands that tachypnea means:
A. Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 140/90
C. Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute
D. Frequent bowel sounds
Correct answer:
Tachypnea refers to an abnormally rapid breathing rate, specifically defined as a respiratory rate exceeding 20 breaths per minute in adults at rest. In this scenario, Jake's respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, which clearly fits the definition of tachypnea. This condition often signals an underlying issue such as respiratory distress, infection, or anxiety, requiring further investigation by the healthcare team. The nurse's recognition and documentation of tachypnea are critical for ensuring timely intervention. The other options are unrelated: a pulse rate over 100 beats per minute defines tachycardia, not tachypnea; blood pressure of 140/90 indicates hypertension, which is a cardiovascular parameter; and frequent bowel sounds pertain to gastrointestinal activity, not respiration. Thus, the correct understanding of tachypnea aligns with a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute, making it the most accurate choice in this context.
A female Native American client who is receiving chemotherapy places a native artifact, an Indian medicine wheel, in her hospital room. The HCP removes the medicine wheel and tells the client, 'This type of thing does not belong in the hospital.' Which intervention should the PN implement?
A. Teach the client about the importance of adhering to the chemotherapy regimen
B. Act as the client's advocate when addressing the issue with the HCP
C. Consult with a Native American healer about the appropriate use of a medicine wheel
D. Inform the HCP about the client's feelings of culture shock
Correct answer:
Acting as the client's advocate is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Removing a culturally significant artifact without considering the client's beliefs and emotional needs can be distressing. By advocating for the client, the PN can ensure that the client's cultural practices are respected, which is crucial for her emotional and spiritual well-being during treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while chemotherapy adherence is important, it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. The client's cultural needs and well-being take precedence. Choice C is incorrect because consulting with a Native American healer might not be necessary at this point and could delay addressing the immediate issue of advocating for the client's rights. Choice D is incorrect because simply reporting the client's feelings of culture shock to the HCP does not actively address the situation or advocate for the client's rights and cultural needs.
The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old patient with a diagnosis of tracheobronchitis. The patient begins complaining of right-sided chest pain that gets worse when he coughs or breathes deeply. Vital signs are within normal limits. What would you suspect this patient is experiencing?
A. Traumatic pneumothorax
B. Empyema
C. Pleuritic pain
D. Myocardial infarction
Correct answer:
Right-sided chest pain worsening with coughing or deep breathing in an 82-year-old with tracheobronchitis suggests pleuritic pain, likely from pleural inflammation secondary to the airway infection. Pleurisy's hallmark is sharp, movement-exacerbated pain due to irritated pleural surfaces rubbing together, often unilateral, and may decrease as fluid accumulates later. Stable vital signs rule out severe systemic issues. Traumatic pneumothorax requires injury, absent here, and would show respiratory distress or absent breath sounds. Empyema, a pleural infection, typically involves fever and systemic signs, not just pain, and isn't indicated without infection escalation. Myocardial infarction causes central, pressure-like pain, often with vital sign changes (e.g., tachycardia, hypotension), not pleuritic features. The nurse's suspicion of pleuritic pain prompts pain management and monitoring for progression, aligning with tracheobronchitis complications.
A patient has pitting pedal edema, crackles, and an elevated blood pressure. The nurse concludes that the patient has fluid volume excess. Which type of reasoning did the nurse use?
A. Theoretical
B. Inductive
C. Deductive
D. Conceptual
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Inductive reasoning. The nurse used inductive reasoning by observing specific signs and symptoms (pitting pedal edema, crackles, elevated blood pressure) and making a general conclusion (fluid volume excess). Inductive reasoning involves deriving general principles from specific observations.
A: Theoretical reasoning involves applying established theories or principles to a situation. In this case, the nurse is not applying a theoretical framework but rather drawing a conclusion from observed data.
C: Deductive reasoning involves starting with a general principle and applying it to a specific situation to reach a specific conclusion. This is not the case here as the nurse started with specific symptoms and reached a general conclusion.
D: Conceptual reasoning involves using abstract concepts or ideas to analyze a situation. The nurse's reasoning was more based on concrete observations rather than abstract concepts.
The nurse manager is facilitating the work of a collaborative team whose mission is to negotiate employment contracts with physicians. The nurse manager does not want to compromise the nurses' concerns in favor of the doctors' concerns. Which strategies would facilitate this outcome
A. Accommodating
B. Compromising
C. Smoothing
D. Collaborating
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Collaborating. Collaborating involves working together to find a mutually beneficial solution that addresses the concerns of all parties involved. In this scenario, the nurse manager can facilitate the negotiation process by actively involving both the nurses and physicians in discussions, encouraging open communication, and seeking common ground to address both nurses' and doctors' concerns. This approach ensures that all stakeholders have a voice in the decision-making process and helps in reaching a solution that satisfies everyone.
A: Accommodating involves giving in to one party's concerns without addressing the concerns of the other party.
B: Compromising involves meeting halfway, which may lead to a solution that only partially addresses the concerns of both parties.
C: Smoothing involves minimizing conflicts without addressing the underlying concerns, which may not lead to a satisfactory resolution for all parties.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 26 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.
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