LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 27

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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 27

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

You are called to assist a 20-year-old male for a severe headache. On-scene, you learn the patient was involved in an accident that caused a potential closed head injury. However, at the time of the accident, the patient refused EMS care, stating he felt fine. Today, he is experiencing headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. Which of the following injuries is most likely to cause this type presentation?

  1. A. Coup-contra-coup injury
  2. B. Diffuse axonal injury
  3. C. Subdural hematoma
  4. D. Epidural hematoma
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Subdural hematoma

The correct answer is C: Subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid mater layers of the meninges. This type of injury typically occurs due to acceleration-deceleration forces causing tearing of bridging veins, common in closed head injuries. The symptoms described (headache, confusion, visual disturbances) are consistent with the presentation of a subdural hematoma. Other choices are less likely: A) Coup-contra-coup injury involves impact forces causing brain injury at the site of impact and opposite side, typically seen in motor vehicle accidents. B) Diffuse axonal injury is caused by shearing forces leading to widespread damage throughout the brain, often resulting in a comatose state. D) Epidural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the skull, usually due to arterial bleeding, and is more commonly associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration, but

Question 2

M.J., age 85, has been diagnosed with terminal lung cancer. During report you were told that the family does not want her to know the diagnosis. M.J. asks you, "Am I going to die?" Which of the following is the best therapeutic response from you, the nurse?

  1. A. "Tell me what prompted that question."
  2. B. "I will ask your physician to discuss this matter with you."
  3. C. "Let's take each day as it comes."
  4. D. "I think you should discuss that with your family."
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — "Tell me what prompted that question."

The correct answer is A: "Tell me what prompted that question." This response shows empathy, encourages open communication, and allows M.J. to express her concerns. By asking for clarification, the nurse can assess M.J.'s understanding and emotional state, providing an opportunity to address her fears and offer support. This approach respects M.J.'s autonomy and allows her to share her feelings. Choice B: "I will ask your physician to discuss this matter with you." This response avoids addressing M.J.'s concerns directly and may not respect her preferences for communication. Choice C: "Let's take each day as it comes." This response does not directly address M.J.'s question and may come across as dismissive of her concerns. Choice D: "I think you should discuss that with your family." This response does not acknowledge M.J.'s feelings or provide direct support, potentially undermining the therapeutic relationship between the nurse and M.J.

Question 3

What are the two essential components of transitional care discharge model that is used in Canada and Scotland?

  1. A. Peer support and bridging staff
  2. B. Collaboration and funding
  3. C. Relapse and hospitalization
  4. D. Poverty and entitlements
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Peer support and bridging staff

Two essential components of the transitional care discharge model are peer support and bridging staff. Peer support is provided by a consumer now living successfully in the community. Bridging staff refers to an overlap between hospital and community care—hospital staff do not terminate their therapeutic relationship with the client until a therapeutic relationship has been established with the community care provider. This model requires collaboration, administrative support, and adequate funding to effectively promote the patient's health and well-being and prevent relapse and rehospitalization. Poverty among people with mental illness is a significant barrier to maintaining housing. Mentally ill persons often rely on government entitlements for their income which forces people to have to choose continuation of the entitlement and dependence versus working inconsistently in unskilled, part-time, and low-paying jobs with no health insurance.

Question 4

A nurse studying the percentage of the population that reports having a regular source of health care notices that some states have significantly higher rates of care than other states. Which of the following factors is most likely the reason for the difference?

  1. A. Differences in health literacy rates
  2. B. The geographic distribution of health care providers
  3. C. The income requirements for Medicaid eligibility
  4. D. Availability of public transportation
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — The geographic distribution of health care providers

The correct answer is B: The geographic distribution of health care providers. This is because the availability of health care providers in a certain area directly impacts the accessibility of health care services for the population. States with higher rates of health care providers are more likely to have better access to regular health care. Choice A (Differences in health literacy rates) is incorrect because while health literacy can impact access to health care, the presence of health care providers is a more direct factor influencing access. Choice C (The income requirements for Medicaid eligibility) is incorrect as it pertains to eligibility for a specific healthcare program rather than the availability of health care providers. Choice D (Availability of public transportation) is incorrect as it may impact access to health care services indirectly but is not as direct a factor as the geographic distribution of health care providers.

Question 5

A 30-year-old woman presents with a complaint of a red, painful, and swollen knee. She has a history of gout. On examination, the knee is warm, erythematous, and tender to touch. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Osteoarthritis
  2. B. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. C. Gout
  4. D. Septic arthritis
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Gout

The most likely diagnosis is gout (Choice C) based on the patient's presentation of red, painful, and swollen knee, with a history of gout. Gout is a form of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to acute flares of pain and swelling. The characteristic features of gout include sudden onset of symptoms, typically affecting one joint at a time, with warmth, erythema, and tenderness. In this case, the patient's history of gout and the classic presentation of an acutely inflamed joint support the diagnosis. Osteoarthritis (Choice A) is a chronic degenerative joint disease characterized by gradual onset of joint pain, stiffness, and limited range of motion. It typically affects weight-bearing joints and is not associated with acute inflammation as seen in gout. Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is an autoimmune disease that causes symmetrical joint pain, morning stiffness, and joint deformities

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Question 6

While giving a history, a patient reports having a weak urinary stream and feeling that his bladder is not empty after urination. Based on these data, what finding does the nurse anticipate upon examination?

  1. A. An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum
  2. B. An indirect hernia palpated through the inguinal ring when the patient coughs
  3. C. The foreskin of the penis cannot be returned to position after retraction behind the glans
  4. D. A nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

Attracting minorities to the profession of nursing is an important consideration for the future of nursing. Which key historical nursing figure set a precedent in this area?

  1. A. Mary Elizabeth Mahoney
  2. B. Nora Livingston
  3. C. Mary Agnes Snively
  4. D. Mary Ann Bickerdyke
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Question 8

h overtime and reduction in RN staff have resulted in decreased client satisfaction and a sentinel event. Management is unwilling to discuss a change in staffing, and collective bargaining interest is sparked. A nurse is approached to sign a union authorization card. What is the purpose of a signed union authorization card?

  1. A. It authorizes the union to serve as his or her legal representative.
  2. B. It indicates that the person is requesting additional information about collective bargaining.
  3. C. It indicates the nurse desires to share information about grievances.
  4. D. It gives permission for union dues to be deducted from pay.
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Question 9

Florence Nightingale is attributed with being intelligent (she developed statistical methods to evaluate health care), dependable (she often worked long hours to care for the injured), and ambitious (she fought against society's perception of nursing). Those who depict her as a leader based on these qualities are practicing which leadership theory?

  1. A. Organizational
  2. B. Chaos
  3. C. Trait
  4. D. Bureaucracy
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Question 10

You are preparing to perform synchronized electrical cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator on your unstable adult patient who is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia at 160 beats per minute on the monitor. Which of the following initial energy settings would be recommended if he was exhibiting a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, in which his palpable carotid pulse matches the rhythm on the monitor?

  1. A. Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules
  2. B. Defibrillation at 100 joules
  3. C. Synchronized cardioversion at 360 joules
  4. D. Defibrillation at 360 joules
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Question 11

A 30 year old male is stabbed in the right chest. On arrival in the ED, he is very short of breath. His HR is 120 bpm, BP is 80/50. His neck veins are flat. On auscultation of the chest, there is diminished air entry on the right side, and there is dullness posteriorly on percussion. These findings are most consistent with:

  1. A. Hemothorax
  2. B. Pericardial tamponade
  3. C. Tension pneumothorax
  4. D. Hypovolemia from the liver injury
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Question 12

The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test?

  1. A. Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?
  2. B. Do you have any family members with a history of TB?
  3. C. How long has it been since you moved to the United States?
  4. D. Did you receive the bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine for TB?
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Question 13

The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a lobectomy for a diagnosis of lung cancer. While assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion, the nurse notes the clients oxygen saturation rapidly dropping. The patient complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects a pneumothorax has developed. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include what?

  1. A. Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side
  2. B. Paradoxical chest wall movement with respirations
  3. C. Sudden loss of consciousness
  4. D. Muffled heart sounds
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Question 14

A patient presents to the ED stating she was in a boating accident about 3 hours ago. Now the patient has complaints of headache, fatigue, and the feeling that he just cant breathe enough. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and tachycardic with an elevated blood pressure. This patient may be in the early stages of what respiratory problem?

  1. A. Pneumoconiosis
  2. B. Pleural effusion
  3. C. Acute respiratory failure
  4. D. Pneumonia
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Question 15

An elderly man has relied on one of his sons for his care. Now the son has become very involved with a religion other than the one in which he was raised. As a result, he now refuses to help his father. What can a nurse do to help in this family situation?

  1. A. Set up a family conference that includes the son
  2. B. Bring in help from other family members or outside
  3. C. Insist that the son help, along with other family members
  4. D. Ask the family's own spiritual adviser to intervene
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 27 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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