You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
You are called to assist a 20-year-old male for a severe headache. On-scene, you learn the patient was involved in an accident that caused a potential closed head injury. However, at the time of the accident, the patient refused EMS care, stating he felt fine. Today, he is experiencing headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. Which of the following injuries is most likely to cause this type presentation?
A. Coup-contra-coup injury
B. Diffuse axonal injury
C. Subdural hematoma
D. Epidural hematoma
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Subdural hematoma
The correct answer is C: Subdural hematoma. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid mater layers of the meninges. This type of injury typically occurs due to acceleration-deceleration forces causing tearing of bridging veins, common in closed head injuries. The symptoms described (headache, confusion, visual disturbances) are consistent with the presentation of a subdural hematoma. Other choices are less likely: A) Coup-contra-coup injury involves impact forces causing brain injury at the site of impact and opposite side, typically seen in motor vehicle accidents. B) Diffuse axonal injury is caused by shearing forces leading to widespread damage throughout the brain, often resulting in a comatose state. D) Epidural hematoma is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the skull, usually due to arterial bleeding, and is more commonly associated with a lucid interval followed by rapid deterioration, but
Question 2
M.J., age 85, has been diagnosed with terminal lung cancer. During report you were told that the family does not want her to know the diagnosis. M.J. asks you, "Am I going to die?" Which of the following is the best therapeutic response from you, the nurse?
A. "Tell me what prompted that question."
B. "I will ask your physician to discuss this matter with you."
C. "Let's take each day as it comes."
D. "I think you should discuss that with your family."
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — "Tell me what prompted that question."
The correct answer is A: "Tell me what prompted that question." This response shows empathy, encourages open communication, and allows M.J. to express her concerns. By asking for clarification, the nurse can assess M.J.'s understanding and emotional state, providing an opportunity to address her fears and offer support. This approach respects M.J.'s autonomy and allows her to share her feelings.
Choice B: "I will ask your physician to discuss this matter with you." This response avoids addressing M.J.'s concerns directly and may not respect her preferences for communication.
Choice C: "Let's take each day as it comes." This response does not directly address M.J.'s question and may come across as dismissive of her concerns.
Choice D: "I think you should discuss that with your family." This response does not acknowledge M.J.'s feelings or provide direct support, potentially undermining the therapeutic relationship between the nurse and M.J.
Question 3
What are the two essential components of transitional care discharge model that is used in Canada and Scotland?
A. Peer support and bridging staff
B. Collaboration and funding
C. Relapse and hospitalization
D. Poverty and entitlements
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Peer support and bridging staff
Two essential components of the transitional care discharge model are peer support and bridging staff. Peer support is provided by a consumer now living successfully in the community. Bridging staff refers to an overlap between hospital and community careâ€â€hospital staff do not terminate their therapeutic relationship with the client until a therapeutic relationship has been established with the community care provider. This model requires collaboration, administrative support, and adequate funding to effectively promote the patient's health and well-being and prevent relapse and rehospitalization. Poverty among people with mental illness is a significant barrier to maintaining housing. Mentally ill persons often rely on government entitlements for their income which forces people to have to choose continuation of the entitlement and dependence versus working inconsistently in unskilled, part-time, and low-paying jobs with no health insurance.
Question 4
A nurse studying the percentage of the population that reports having a regular source of health care notices that some states have significantly higher rates of care than other states. Which of the following factors is most likely the reason for the difference?
A. Differences in health literacy rates
B. The geographic distribution of health care providers
C. The income requirements for Medicaid eligibility
D. Availability of public transportation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — The geographic distribution of health care providers
The correct answer is B: The geographic distribution of health care providers. This is because the availability of health care providers in a certain area directly impacts the accessibility of health care services for the population. States with higher rates of health care providers are more likely to have better access to regular health care.
Choice A (Differences in health literacy rates) is incorrect because while health literacy can impact access to health care, the presence of health care providers is a more direct factor influencing access.
Choice C (The income requirements for Medicaid eligibility) is incorrect as it pertains to eligibility for a specific healthcare program rather than the availability of health care providers.
Choice D (Availability of public transportation) is incorrect as it may impact access to health care services indirectly but is not as direct a factor as the geographic distribution of health care providers.
Question 5
A 30-year-old woman presents with a complaint of a red, painful, and swollen knee. She has a history of gout. On examination, the knee is warm, erythematous, and tender to touch. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Septic arthritis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Gout
The most likely diagnosis is gout (Choice C) based on the patient's presentation of red, painful, and swollen knee, with a history of gout. Gout is a form of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to acute flares of pain and swelling. The characteristic features of gout include sudden onset of symptoms, typically affecting one joint at a time, with warmth, erythema, and tenderness. In this case, the patient's history of gout and the classic presentation of an acutely inflamed joint support the diagnosis.
Osteoarthritis (Choice A) is a chronic degenerative joint disease characterized by gradual onset of joint pain, stiffness, and limited range of motion. It typically affects weight-bearing joints and is not associated with acute inflammation as seen in gout.
Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is an autoimmune disease that causes symmetrical joint pain, morning stiffness, and joint deformities
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Question 6
While giving a history, a patient reports having a weak urinary stream and feeling that his bladder is not empty after urination. Based on these data, what finding does the nurse anticipate upon examination?
A. An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum
B. An indirect hernia palpated through the inguinal ring when the patient coughs
C. The foreskin of the penis cannot be returned to position after retraction behind the glans
D. A nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: An enlarged prostate gland palpated on the anterior wall of the rectum. In this case, the patient's weak urinary stream and feeling of incomplete bladder emptying are classic symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). During a rectal examination, an enlarged prostate gland can be felt as a smooth, rubbery, and symmetrically enlarged mass on the anterior wall of the rectum. This finding correlates with the patient's urinary symptoms, indicating obstruction of the urethra by the enlarged prostate.
Choice B is incorrect because an indirect hernia is not typically associated with urinary symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it describes paraphimosis, a condition where the foreskin cannot be returned to its original position. Choice D is incorrect as a nodular prostate gland palpated on the posterior wall of the rectum is more characteristic of prostate cancer rather than BPH, which is typically felt on the anterior wall.
Attracting minorities to the profession of nursing is an important consideration for the future of nursing. Which key historical nursing figure set a precedent in this area?
A. Mary Elizabeth Mahoney
B. Nora Livingston
C. Mary Agnes Snively
D. Mary Ann Bickerdyke
Correct answer:
Mary Elizabeth Mahoney's legacy as the first African American nurse in the United States marks her as a trailblazer for minorities in nursing, setting a powerful precedent for diversity. Graduating in 1879, she broke racial barriers in a predominantly white profession, advocating for equal opportunities and inspiring future generations. Her work elevated nursing's professional status and highlighted the need for inclusivity, aligning with efforts to address healthcare disparities. Nora Livingston established early hospital training in North America, but her focus was structural, not diversity. Mary Agnes Snively advanced Canadian nursing organizationally, while Mary Ann Bickerdyke improved Civil War care logistics, neither emphasizing minority inclusion. Mahoney's pioneering role remains a cornerstone for recruiting diverse talent, ensuring nursing reflects and serves varied populations, a critical consideration for its future relevance and equity.
h overtime and reduction in RN staff have resulted in decreased client satisfaction and a sentinel event. Management is unwilling to discuss a change in staffing, and collective bargaining interest is sparked. A nurse is approached to sign a union authorization card. What is the purpose of a signed union authorization card?
A. It authorizes the union to serve as his or her legal representative.
B. It indicates that the person is requesting additional information about collective bargaining.
C. It indicates the nurse desires to share information about grievances.
D. It gives permission for union dues to be deducted from pay.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: It authorizes the union to serve as his or her legal representative. By signing a union authorization card, the nurse is giving consent for the union to represent them in negotiations with the management regarding collective bargaining and potential staffing changes. This authorization is crucial for the union to act on behalf of the nurse's interests and rights in discussions related to workplace conditions and contractual agreements.
Explanation for other choices:
B: Requesting additional information about collective bargaining is not the primary purpose of a signed union authorization card.
C: Sharing information about grievances is not the main objective of signing a union authorization card.
D: While union dues may be deducted from pay once the nurse becomes a union member, the primary purpose of the authorization card is to designate the union as the legal representative, not to give permission for dues deduction.
Florence Nightingale is attributed with being intelligent (she developed statistical methods to evaluate health care), dependable (she often worked long hours to care for the injured), and ambitious (she fought against society's perception of nursing). Those who depict her as a leader based on these qualities are practicing which leadership theory?
A. Organizational
B. Chaos
C. Trait
D. Bureaucracy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Trait. Trait theory of leadership focuses on identifying specific personality traits and characteristics that are associated with effective leadership. In this case, Florence Nightingale's intelligence, dependability, and ambition are traits that are commonly associated with effective leadership. Her ability to develop statistical methods, work long hours, and challenge societal norms are all examples of traits that align with successful leadership qualities.
A: Organizational theory focuses on how organizations are structured and operate, not on individual traits.
B: Chaos theory deals with complex systems and unpredictability, not individual traits.
D: Bureaucracy theory focuses on organizational structure and processes, not individual traits.
In summary, the other choices are incorrect because they do not focus on individual traits like the trait theory does in explaining Florence Nightingale's leadership qualities.
You are preparing to perform synchronized electrical cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator on your unstable adult patient who is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia at 160 beats per minute on the monitor. Which of the following initial energy settings would be recommended if he was exhibiting a narrow complex, regular supraventricular tachycardia, in which his palpable carotid pulse matches the rhythm on the monitor?
A. Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules
B. Defibrillation at 100 joules
C. Synchronized cardioversion at 360 joules
D. Defibrillation at 360 joules
Correct answer:
The correct initial energy setting for synchronized electrical cardioversion in a patient with stable supraventricular tachycardia is A: Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules. This is because the patient is hemodynamically stable, with a narrow complex, regular rhythm, and a palpable carotid pulse matching the monitor. The recommended energy range for synchronized cardioversion in such cases is typically between 50-100 joules. This energy level is sufficient to terminate the tachyarrhythmia without causing unnecessary harm to the patient.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because defibrillation energy settings (100-360 joules) are too high for a stable supraventricular tachycardia patient. Using such high energy levels could lead to unnecessary myocardial damage and potentially worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, the correct choice is A, as it aligns with the principles of providing effective treatment while minimizing the risk of
A 30 year old male is stabbed in the right chest. On arrival in the ED, he is very short of breath. His HR is 120 bpm, BP is 80/50. His neck veins are flat. On auscultation of the chest, there is diminished air entry on the right side, and there is dullness posteriorly on percussion. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Hemothorax
B. Pericardial tamponade
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Hypovolemia from the liver injury
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Hemothorax. In this scenario, the patient presents with signs of respiratory distress, tachycardia, hypotension, flat neck veins, diminished air entry on the right side, and dullness on percussion, which are indicative of a hemothorax. Hemothorax is characterized by the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity, leading to lung compression and impaired ventilation. The symptoms align with the physical exam findings of decreased breath sounds and dullness due to blood occupying the pleural space. The absence of signs like muffled heart sounds or pulsus paradoxus rules out pericardial tamponade. The lack of tracheal deviation and mediastinal shift discounts tension pneumothorax. Hypovolemia from liver injury may present with similar vital sign abnormalities but would not manifest with specific chest exam findings like dullness on percussion. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and exam findings, hemothorax is the
The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test?
A. Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?
B. Do you have any family members with a history of TB?
C. How long has it been since you moved to the United States?
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a lobectomy for a diagnosis of lung cancer. While assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion, the nurse notes the clients oxygen saturation rapidly dropping. The patient complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects a pneumothorax has developed. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include what?
A. Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side
B. Paradoxical chest wall movement with respirations
C. Sudden loss of consciousness
D. Muffled heart sounds
Correct answer:
A pneumothorax, a collapsed lung from air in the pleural space, disrupts normal lung expansion, leading to distinct assessment findings. Diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side occur because air cannot enter the collapsed lung segment, reducing or eliminating audible airflow during auscultation. This is a classic sign, especially post-procedure like central line insertion, which risks pleural puncture. Paradoxical chest wall movement is specific to flail chest, where multiple rib fractures cause a segment to move oppositely during breathing, not a simple pneumothorax. Sudden loss of consciousness might indicate severe hypoxia or tension pneumothorax but isn't a primary sign. Muffled heart sounds suggest pericardial tamponade, a cardiac issue unrelated to pneumothorax. The nurse's observation of respiratory distress and absent breath sounds strongly supports pneumothorax, warranting immediate intervention like chest tube insertion.
A patient presents to the ED stating she was in a boating accident about 3 hours ago. Now the patient has complaints of headache, fatigue, and the feeling that he just cant breathe enough. The nurse notes that the patient is restless and tachycardic with an elevated blood pressure. This patient may be in the early stages of what respiratory problem?
A. Pneumoconiosis
B. Pleural effusion
C. Acute respiratory failure
D. Pneumonia
Correct answer:
Early acute respiratory failure (ARF) manifests with nonspecific signs of impaired oxygenation restlessness, fatigue, headache, dyspnea (feeling of insufficient breathing), tachycardia, and hypertension reflecting the body's compensatory response to hypoxia or hypercapnia post-trauma like a boating accident. These symptoms align with ARF's progression from subtle distress to overt failure, potentially from chest trauma or submersion injury affecting lung function. Pneumoconiosis, a chronic condition from dust exposure, doesn't fit an acute post-accident onset. Pleural effusion causes dyspnea but typically with pleuritic pain or reduced breath sounds, not this full symptom cluster. Pneumonia, infectious in nature, develops over days, not hours, and lacks trauma linkage here. The nurse's recognition of ARF prompts urgent oxygenation assessment (e.g., pulse oximetry) and intervention, vital given its rapid deterioration potential in trauma settings.
An elderly man has relied on one of his sons for his care. Now the son has become very involved with a religion other than the one in which he was raised. As a result, he now refuses to help his father. What can a nurse do to help in this family situation?
A. Set up a family conference that includes the son
B. Bring in help from other family members or outside
C. Insist that the son help, along with other family members
D. Ask the family's own spiritual adviser to intervene
Correct answer:
In this complex family situation, it is essential to approach the issue with sensitivity and understanding. Setting up a family conference that includes the son is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take. While it may seem challenging, there is a possibility that involving the son in a family discussion can help him understand the impact of his actions on his father and the rest of the family. By including him in the conversation, the son may realize the importance of his role in caring for his father. Insisting that the son help, along with other family members, could lead to resistance and further alienation. Asking the family's spiritual adviser to intervene may not be effective if the son is rebelling against the family's religion. If the family conference does not yield positive results, then bringing in help from other family members or an outside caregiver may become necessary to ensure the elderly man receives the care he needs.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 27 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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