You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for which she underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects of the physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms?
A. Femoral pulse, popliteal pulse
B. Dorsalis pedis pulse, posterior tibial pulse
C. Carotid pulse
D. Radial pulse, brachial pulse
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Radial pulse, brachial pulse
The correct answer is D: Radial pulse, brachial pulse. When assessing for peripheral vascular disease in the arms, it is important to check the radial and brachial pulses. The radial pulse is located at the wrist and is an indicator of arterial flow to the hand, while the brachial pulse is located in the upper arm and is important for assessing arterial flow to the forearm. In this patient with a history of breast cancer and hypertension, checking these pulses can provide valuable information about blood flow to the arms, especially after surgery and radiation therapy.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because:
A: Femoral and popliteal pulses are located in the lower extremities and are not relevant for assessing peripheral vascular disease in the arms.
B: Dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are also located in the lower extremities and do not provide information about arterial flow to the arms.
C: Carotid pulse is located in the neck and is
Question 2
Neonate of diabetic mother is at risk for all of the following except:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hyperbilirubinemia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Hyperglycemia
Neonates of diabetic mothers (NDM) face metabolic challenges due to maternal hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (choice A) occurs because fetal hyperinsulinemia, triggered by high maternal glucose, persists after birth when glucose supply drops. Hypocalcemia (choice B) arises from delayed parathyroid hormone response, common in NDMs. Hyperglycemia (choice C) is less likely postnatally; it's a maternal issue, not a neonatal risk, as the infant's insulin levels typically normalize glucose after delivery. Hyperbilirubinemia (choice D) results from increased red blood cell breakdown, often linked to polycythemia in NDMs. Choice C is correct because hyperglycemia is not a typical risk after birth; instead, hypoglycemia dominates due to insulin excess. Nurses must monitor blood glucose closely in the first hours, provide calcium if needed, and watch for jaundice, ensuring timely management of these interconnected risks to prevent seizures, bone issues, or kernicterus.
Question 3
The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration. The nurse assesses a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5 C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse notes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?
A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
D. Renal failure
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
The correct diagnosis is A: Fluid volume deficit (FVD). The patient's vital signs and symptoms indicate hypovolemia. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, heart rate of 110 beats/minute, low blood pressure, high temperature, dizziness upon position change, and cool, clammy skin are all indicative of FVD. The increased respiratory and heart rates are compensatory mechanisms to maintain oxygen delivery in response to decreased circulating volume. The low blood pressure and cool, clammy skin suggest poor perfusion due to decreased fluid volume. These findings align with the clinical presentation of dehydration.
Summary of other choices:
B: Fluid volume excess (FVE) - Contradicted by the patient's low blood pressure, cool, clammy skin, and symptoms of dehydration.
C: Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit - Symptoms and vital signs are indicative of severe rather than mild fluid deficit.
D: Renal failure - Not supported by the information provided;
Question 4
A scalp block aims to stop conduction in the following nerves:
A. Zygomaticotemporal.
B. Infraorbital.
C. Greater occipital.
D. Auriculotemporal.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Greater occipital.
A scalp block is used in awake craniotomy to provide regional anesthesia by blocking sensory nerves innervating the scalp. The greater occipital nerve supplies the posterior scalp, making it a key target. The zygomaticotemporal nerve innervates the temple area, and the auriculotemporal nerve covers the lateral scalp and ear region both are also commonly blocked. The infraorbital nerve supplies the midface, not the scalp, and the trochlear nerve (likely a misnomer for supraorbital or supratrochlear) innervates the forehead, another typical target. However, the greater occipital stands out as essential for posterior coverage, consistently cited in scalp block techniques. The rationale hinges on anatomical innervation: effective scalp anesthesia requires blocking nerves from both trigeminal (V1, V2, V3 branches) and cervical (C2, C3) origins, with the greater occipital being a primary cervical contributor, ensuring comprehensive pain control during surgery.
Question 5
A 32-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department because of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Her husband stated that his wife had been suffering from epilepsy since childhood, but the seizures were only partially controlled by medication. Which of the following pairs of neurotransmitters are thought to be most involved in seizure disorders?
A. GABA and serotonin
B. GABA and glutamate
C. GABA and acetylcholine
D. Serotonin and glutamate
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — GABA and glutamate
The correct answer is B: GABA and glutamate. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps regulate neuronal excitability, while glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that enhances neuronal activity. In seizure disorders, an imbalance between these two neurotransmitters can lead to excessive neuronal firing and seizures. GABAergic drugs are commonly used to increase inhibition and reduce seizure activity.
A: GABA and serotonin - While serotonin plays a role in mood regulation and certain aspects of seizure disorders, it is not as directly involved in the mechanisms of seizures as glutamate.
C: GABA and acetylcholine - Acetylcholine is involved in various functions such as muscle movement and memory but is not as central to seizure disorders as glutamate.
D: Serotonin and glutamate - While both serotonin and glutamate have roles in the central nervous system, glutamate is more directly implicated in seizure disorders compared to serotonin.
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Question 6
The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment and notes that the patient has a decreased range of motion in the shoulder with pain on movement. What is the most likely cause of this finding?
A. Osteoarthritis.
B. Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis).
C. Rheumatoid arthritis.
D. Bursitis.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis). Frozen shoulder is characterized by decreased range of motion in the shoulder joint with pain on movement. This is due to inflammation and thickening of the shoulder joint capsule, leading to adhesions that restrict movement. Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Osteoarthritis primarily affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness but typically doesn't lead to severe restriction of range of motion like in frozen shoulder.
C: Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disorder that can affect multiple joints, causing inflammation and deformities, but it doesn't typically present with the characteristic pattern of restricted movement seen in frozen shoulder.
D: Bursitis involves inflammation of the bursae (fluid-filled sacs) around joints, leading to pain and swelling, but it doesn't typically result in the severe restriction of movement and pain on movement seen in frozen shoulder.
A client with myasthenia gravis reports the occurrence of difficulty chewing. The physician prescribes pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) to increase muscle strength for this activity. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication at what time, in relation to meals?
A. after dinner daily when most fatigued
B. before breakfast daily
C. as soon as arising in the morning
D. thirty minutes before each meal
Correct answer:
Pyridostigmine bromide is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to enhance muscle strength in myasthenia gravis, a condition characterized by muscle weakness, including difficulty chewing. Timing the medication administration is critical to maximize its effectiveness for specific activities like eating. Taking it 30 minutes before meals allows the drug to reach peak activity when the client needs improved muscle function to chew and swallow food comfortably. This timing aligns with the drug's pharmacokinetics, as it typically begins working within 30 to 60 minutes, ensuring optimal support during meals. Administering it after dinner or only in the morning would miss key eating times, while taking it upon arising might not sustain effects throughout the day. This strategic timing enhances the client's quality of life by addressing a primary symptom at the most relevant moments, reflecting a patient-centered approach to managing chronic neuromuscular conditions.
The nurse caring for a patient recently diagnosed with lung disease encourages the patient not to smoke. What is the primary rationale behind this nursing action?
A. Smoking decreases the amount of mucus production
B. Smoke particles compete for binding sites on hemoglobin
C. Smoking causes atrophy of the alveoli
D. Smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism
Correct answer:
Smoking cessation is a cornerstone of lung disease management because it directly damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism, a critical defense of the respiratory tract. Cilia, hair-like structures lining the airways, sweep mucus and trapped particles upward for clearance, but smoking paralyzes and destroys them, leading to mucus accumulation, chronic irritation, and increased infection risk. Contrary to decreasing mucus, smoking stimulates goblet cells to overproduce mucus, exacerbating airway obstruction. Smoke does reduce oxygen-carrying capacity by forming carboxyhemoglobin, but this is secondary to ciliary damage in most lung diseases like COPD. Alveolar distention, not atrophy, occurs in emphysema due to air trapping, and while smoking contributes, the primary harm is ciliary dysfunction. By stopping smoking, the patient can slow disease progression, reduce inflammation, and preserve remaining lung function, making this the nurse's primary rationale.
Knowledge in nursing varies by source and objectivity, with traditional and authoritative types being subjective. Traditional knowledge, passed down through generations like family remedies relies on personal or cultural experience, lacking standardized validation, thus varying by individual perception. Authoritative knowledge, from experts like seasoned clinicians, depends on their subjective interpretation of expertise, influenced by personal biases or context, not universal proof. Scientific knowledge, derived from rigorous research, and evidence-based practice, integrating that research with outcomes, aim for objectivity through replicable evidence. The scientific method underpins both, emphasizing measurable, unbiased results. Subjective knowledge shapes nursing by reflecting human experience, but its variability requires nurses to balance it with objective data, ensuring care respects client beliefs while grounding interventions in proven efficacy.
A client is admitted to a cardiac care unit for chronic hypertension. The client has been struggling to take their medications appropriately and acute management was required to gain control of the client’s hypertension. The client had recently been having several high blood pressures in the morning and was prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc®) 5 mg PO daily. Prior to the first administration of the amlodipine (Norvasc), the client’s vitals read: heart rate 80, respiratory rate 10, 100%, and blood pressure 80/50. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Administer the amlodipine (Norvasc®).
B. Chart that the client refused the medication.
C. Hold the amlodipine (Norvasc®) and notify the provider.
D. Hold the amlodipine (Norvasc®) for 30 minutes and then administer the medication.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Hold the amlodipine (Norvasc®) and notify the provider. The client's blood pressure of 80/50 is significantly low, indicating hypotension. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that can further lower blood pressure. Therefore, administering amlodipine in this situation could worsen the hypotension and lead to potential complications such as dizziness, fainting, or even shock. By holding the medication and notifying the provider, the nurse ensures that the provider can assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action, which may include adjusting the medication dosage or considering alternative treatments. This approach prioritizes patient safety and prevents harm.
Summary of other choices:
A: Administering the amlodipine could worsen the hypotension, leading to potential complications.
B: Charting that the client refused the medication does not address the critical issue of the client's hypotension.
D:
Your adult patient sustained a right index finger amputation at work. On arrival, first responders have the bleeding controlled with sterile dressings, and the patient is conscious, alert, and oriented. What is the best way to manage the patient's amputated finger during transport to the hospital?
A. Do not wrap the finger. Gently place it in a sealed plastic bag, and place it on a towel in ice.
B. Wrap the finger in gauze (moistened with normal saline), and seal the finger in a plastic bag before placing it on ice
C. Rinse the gauze-wrapped finger using water, and place it in a plastic bag with ice
D. Wrap it in gauze, and place the finger in close proximity to the patient's core to maintain the appropriate body temperature for re-attachment
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Wrap the finger in gauze (moistened with normal saline), and seal the finger in a plastic bag before placing it on ice. This method helps preserve the amputated part by keeping it moist and cool, which can improve the chances of successful reattachment. Here's a step-by-step rationale:
1. Moistening the gauze with normal saline helps prevent the tissue from drying out, maintaining its viability.
2. Sealing the finger in a plastic bag helps protect it from contamination and further damage during transport.
3. Placing the sealed finger on ice helps keep it cool, which slows down metabolic processes and reduces tissue damage.
4. Avoiding direct contact of the finger with ice prevents frostbite and tissue damage from extreme cold.
In summary, option B is the best choice as it optimally preserves the amputated finger for potential reattachment. Option A does not maintain moisture, leading to tissue damage. Option C's use of water
A group is in the working phase. One member says, That is the stupidest thing Ive ever heard. Everyone whines and tells everyone else what to do. This group is a total waste of my time. Which comment by the group leader would be most therapeutic?
A. You seem to think you know a lot already. Since you know so much, perhaps you can tell everyone why you are back in the hospital?
B. I think you have made your views clear, but I wonder if others feel the same way. How does everyone else feel about our group?
C. It must be hard to be so angry. Direct this comment to another group member, You were also angry at first but not now. What has helped you?
D. I would like to remind you that one of our group rules is that everyone is to offer only positive responses to the comments of others.
Correct answer:
The members comments demean the group and its members and suggest that the member is very angry. Labeling the emotion and conveying empathy would be therapeutic. Focusing on members who are likely to be more positive can balance the influence of demoralizing members. You seem to know a lot conveys hostility from the leader, who confronts and challenges the member to explain how he came to be readmitted if he was so knowledgeable, implying that he is less knowledgeable than he claims. This comment suggests countertransference and is non-therapeutic. Shifting away from the complaining member to see if others agree seeks to have others express disagreement with this member, but that might not happen. In the face of his anger, they might be quiet or afraid to oppose him, or they could respond in kind by expressing hostility themselves. A rule that only positive exchanges are permitted would suppress conflict, reducing the effectiveness of the therapy group.
Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete. His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends. This has gone on for a month and a half. When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it "would be better if he were not here." What would you do next?
A. Tell him that he has a very promising career in anything he chooses and soon he will feel better.
B. Tell him that he needs an antidepressant and it will take about 4 weeks to work.
C. Speak with his mother about getting him together more with his friends.
D. Assess his suicide risk
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Assess his suicide risk. Given Adam's statement about it being better if he were not here and his recent behavioral changes, there are clear signs of potential suicidal ideation. It is crucial to prioritize assessing his immediate safety. This involves asking direct questions about suicide, assessing the presence of a suicide plan, means, and intent. This step is essential in ensuring Adam's safety and providing appropriate support and intervention if needed.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Offering vague reassurance about his promising future does not address the immediate concerns of potential suicide risk.
B: Jumping to prescribing antidepressants without a thorough evaluation and risk assessment is premature and does not address the urgency of the situation.
C: Speaking with his mother about getting him together with friends overlooks the seriousness of Adam's statement and the need for immediate intervention.
Andrew, a New York City firefighter, and his entire unit responded to the terrorist attacks at the World Trade Center. Working as a team, he and his best friend, Carlo, entered the area together. Carlo was killed when the building collapsed. Andrew was injured, but survived. Since that time, Andrew has had frequent nightmares and anxiety attacks. He says to the mental health worker, 'I don’t know why Carlo had to die and I didn’t!' This statement by Andrew suggests that he is experiencing:
A. Spiritual distress
B. Night terrors
C. Survivor’s guilt
D. Suicidal ideation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Survivor's guilt. Andrew's statement indicates feelings of guilt and confusion about why he survived while Carlo did not. Survivor's guilt is a common psychological response in individuals who have lived through a traumatic event where others did not. Andrew's frequent nightmares and anxiety attacks are also typical symptoms of survivor's guilt.
A: Spiritual distress is not the correct answer in this scenario as Andrew's statement does not specifically reference any spiritual or religious beliefs or conflicts.
B: Night terrors may be a symptom of Andrew's PTSD, but his statement about not understanding why he survived while Carlo did not suggests a deeper emotional struggle beyond just experiencing night terrors.
D: Suicidal ideation is not the correct answer as Andrew's statement does not indicate any desire or intention to harm himself. Rather, he is expressing confusion and guilt about surviving the traumatic event.
A school nurse wants to decrease the incidence of obesity in elementary school children. Which of the following describes a secondary prevention intervention that the nurse could implement?
A. Giving a presentation on the importance of exercise and physical fitness
B. Designing a game in which students select healthy food choices
C. Weighing students to identify those who are overweight
D. Putting students on a diet if they weigh greater than 20% of their ideal weight
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because weighing students to identify those who are overweight is a secondary prevention intervention. This intervention focuses on early detection and intervention for individuals who already have risk factors for a health condition, in this case, obesity. By identifying overweight students early on, the nurse can provide targeted interventions and support to prevent further weight gain and related health issues.
A, giving a presentation on the importance of exercise, is more of a primary prevention strategy aimed at educating all students to prevent obesity from occurring in the first place. B, designing a game for healthy food choices, is also a primary prevention strategy that promotes healthy behaviors for all students. D, putting students on a diet if they are overweight, is more of a tertiary prevention approach focusing on treatment after the condition has already developed, rather than early detection and prevention.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 25 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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