LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 25

LPN exams · fundamentals

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 25

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for which she underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects of the physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms?

  1. A. Femoral pulse, popliteal pulse
  2. B. Dorsalis pedis pulse, posterior tibial pulse
  3. C. Carotid pulse
  4. D. Radial pulse, brachial pulse
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Radial pulse, brachial pulse

The correct answer is D: Radial pulse, brachial pulse. When assessing for peripheral vascular disease in the arms, it is important to check the radial and brachial pulses. The radial pulse is located at the wrist and is an indicator of arterial flow to the hand, while the brachial pulse is located in the upper arm and is important for assessing arterial flow to the forearm. In this patient with a history of breast cancer and hypertension, checking these pulses can provide valuable information about blood flow to the arms, especially after surgery and radiation therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A: Femoral and popliteal pulses are located in the lower extremities and are not relevant for assessing peripheral vascular disease in the arms. B: Dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are also located in the lower extremities and do not provide information about arterial flow to the arms. C: Carotid pulse is located in the neck and is

Question 2

Neonate of diabetic mother is at risk for all of the following except:

  1. A. Hypoglycemia
  2. B. Hypocalcemia
  3. C. Hyperglycemia
  4. D. Hyperbilirubinemia
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Hyperglycemia

Neonates of diabetic mothers (NDM) face metabolic challenges due to maternal hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (choice A) occurs because fetal hyperinsulinemia, triggered by high maternal glucose, persists after birth when glucose supply drops. Hypocalcemia (choice B) arises from delayed parathyroid hormone response, common in NDMs. Hyperglycemia (choice C) is less likely postnatally; it's a maternal issue, not a neonatal risk, as the infant's insulin levels typically normalize glucose after delivery. Hyperbilirubinemia (choice D) results from increased red blood cell breakdown, often linked to polycythemia in NDMs. Choice C is correct because hyperglycemia is not a typical risk after birth; instead, hypoglycemia dominates due to insulin excess. Nurses must monitor blood glucose closely in the first hours, provide calcium if needed, and watch for jaundice, ensuring timely management of these interconnected risks to prevent seizures, bone issues, or kernicterus.

Question 3

The nurse is performing an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration. The nurse assesses a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5 C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse notes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

  1. A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
  2. B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
  3. C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
  4. D. Renal failure
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Fluid volume deficit (FVD)

The correct diagnosis is A: Fluid volume deficit (FVD). The patient's vital signs and symptoms indicate hypovolemia. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, heart rate of 110 beats/minute, low blood pressure, high temperature, dizziness upon position change, and cool, clammy skin are all indicative of FVD. The increased respiratory and heart rates are compensatory mechanisms to maintain oxygen delivery in response to decreased circulating volume. The low blood pressure and cool, clammy skin suggest poor perfusion due to decreased fluid volume. These findings align with the clinical presentation of dehydration. Summary of other choices: B: Fluid volume excess (FVE) - Contradicted by the patient's low blood pressure, cool, clammy skin, and symptoms of dehydration. C: Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit - Symptoms and vital signs are indicative of severe rather than mild fluid deficit. D: Renal failure - Not supported by the information provided;

Question 4

A scalp block aims to stop conduction in the following nerves:

  1. A. Zygomaticotemporal.
  2. B. Infraorbital.
  3. C. Greater occipital.
  4. D. Auriculotemporal.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Greater occipital.

A scalp block is used in awake craniotomy to provide regional anesthesia by blocking sensory nerves innervating the scalp. The greater occipital nerve supplies the posterior scalp, making it a key target. The zygomaticotemporal nerve innervates the temple area, and the auriculotemporal nerve covers the lateral scalp and ear region both are also commonly blocked. The infraorbital nerve supplies the midface, not the scalp, and the trochlear nerve (likely a misnomer for supraorbital or supratrochlear) innervates the forehead, another typical target. However, the greater occipital stands out as essential for posterior coverage, consistently cited in scalp block techniques. The rationale hinges on anatomical innervation: effective scalp anesthesia requires blocking nerves from both trigeminal (V1, V2, V3 branches) and cervical (C2, C3) origins, with the greater occipital being a primary cervical contributor, ensuring comprehensive pain control during surgery.

Question 5

A 32-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department because of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Her husband stated that his wife had been suffering from epilepsy since childhood, but the seizures were only partially controlled by medication. Which of the following pairs of neurotransmitters are thought to be most involved in seizure disorders?

  1. A. GABA and serotonin
  2. B. GABA and glutamate
  3. C. GABA and acetylcholine
  4. D. Serotonin and glutamate
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — GABA and glutamate

The correct answer is B: GABA and glutamate. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps regulate neuronal excitability, while glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that enhances neuronal activity. In seizure disorders, an imbalance between these two neurotransmitters can lead to excessive neuronal firing and seizures. GABAergic drugs are commonly used to increase inhibition and reduce seizure activity. A: GABA and serotonin - While serotonin plays a role in mood regulation and certain aspects of seizure disorders, it is not as directly involved in the mechanisms of seizures as glutamate. C: GABA and acetylcholine - Acetylcholine is involved in various functions such as muscle movement and memory but is not as central to seizure disorders as glutamate. D: Serotonin and glutamate - While both serotonin and glutamate have roles in the central nervous system, glutamate is more directly implicated in seizure disorders compared to serotonin.

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Question 6

The nurse is performing a musculoskeletal assessment and notes that the patient has a decreased range of motion in the shoulder with pain on movement. What is the most likely cause of this finding?

  1. A. Osteoarthritis.
  2. B. Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis).
  3. C. Rheumatoid arthritis.
  4. D. Bursitis.
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Question 7

A client with myasthenia gravis reports the occurrence of difficulty chewing. The physician prescribes pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) to increase muscle strength for this activity. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication at what time, in relation to meals?

  1. A. after dinner daily when most fatigued
  2. B. before breakfast daily
  3. C. as soon as arising in the morning
  4. D. thirty minutes before each meal
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Question 8

The nurse caring for a patient recently diagnosed with lung disease encourages the patient not to smoke. What is the primary rationale behind this nursing action?

  1. A. Smoking decreases the amount of mucus production
  2. B. Smoke particles compete for binding sites on hemoglobin
  3. C. Smoking causes atrophy of the alveoli
  4. D. Smoking damages the ciliary cleansing mechanism
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Question 9

Which types of knowledge are subjective?

  1. A. Traditional knowledge
  2. B. Authoritative knowledge
  3. C. Scientific knowledge
  4. D. Evidence-based practice
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Question 10

A client is admitted to a cardiac care unit for chronic hypertension. The client has been struggling to take their medications appropriately and acute management was required to gain control of the client’s hypertension. The client had recently been having several high blood pressures in the morning and was prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc®) 5 mg PO daily. Prior to the first administration of the amlodipine (Norvasc), the client’s vitals read: heart rate 80, respiratory rate 10, 100%, and blood pressure 80/50. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

  1. A. Administer the amlodipine (Norvasc®).
  2. B. Chart that the client refused the medication.
  3. C. Hold the amlodipine (Norvasc®) and notify the provider.
  4. D. Hold the amlodipine (Norvasc®) for 30 minutes and then administer the medication.
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Question 11

Your adult patient sustained a right index finger amputation at work. On arrival, first responders have the bleeding controlled with sterile dressings, and the patient is conscious, alert, and oriented. What is the best way to manage the patient's amputated finger during transport to the hospital?

  1. A. Do not wrap the finger. Gently place it in a sealed plastic bag, and place it on a towel in ice.
  2. B. Wrap the finger in gauze (moistened with normal saline), and seal the finger in a plastic bag before placing it on ice
  3. C. Rinse the gauze-wrapped finger using water, and place it in a plastic bag with ice
  4. D. Wrap it in gauze, and place the finger in close proximity to the patient's core to maintain the appropriate body temperature for re-attachment
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Question 12

A group is in the working phase. One member says, That is the stupidest thing Ive ever heard. Everyone whines and tells everyone else what to do. This group is a total waste of my time. Which comment by the group leader would be most therapeutic?

  1. A. You seem to think you know a lot already. Since you know so much, perhaps you can tell everyone why you are back in the hospital?
  2. B. I think you have made your views clear, but I wonder if others feel the same way. How does everyone else feel about our group?
  3. C. It must be hard to be so angry. Direct this comment to another group member, You were also angry at first but not now. What has helped you?
  4. D. I would like to remind you that one of our group rules is that everyone is to offer only positive responses to the comments of others.
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Question 13

Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete. His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends. This has gone on for a month and a half. When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it "would be better if he were not here." What would you do next?

  1. A. Tell him that he has a very promising career in anything he chooses and soon he will feel better.
  2. B. Tell him that he needs an antidepressant and it will take about 4 weeks to work.
  3. C. Speak with his mother about getting him together more with his friends.
  4. D. Assess his suicide risk
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Question 14

Andrew, a New York City firefighter, and his entire unit responded to the terrorist attacks at the World Trade Center. Working as a team, he and his best friend, Carlo, entered the area together. Carlo was killed when the building collapsed. Andrew was injured, but survived. Since that time, Andrew has had frequent nightmares and anxiety attacks. He says to the mental health worker, 'I don’t know why Carlo had to die and I didn’t!' This statement by Andrew suggests that he is experiencing:

  1. A. Spiritual distress
  2. B. Night terrors
  3. C. Survivor’s guilt
  4. D. Suicidal ideation
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Question 15

A school nurse wants to decrease the incidence of obesity in elementary school children. Which of the following describes a secondary prevention intervention that the nurse could implement?

  1. A. Giving a presentation on the importance of exercise and physical fitness
  2. B. Designing a game in which students select healthy food choices
  3. C. Weighing students to identify those who are overweight
  4. D. Putting students on a diet if they weigh greater than 20% of their ideal weight
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 25 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.