You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following drugs most likely interacted with metoclopramide, thus triggering the adverse effects reported by the patient?
A. Amitriptyline
B. Lithium
C. Zolpidem
D. Paroxetine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Amitriptyline
The correct answer is A: Amitriptyline. Metoclopramide interacts with amitriptyline by inhibiting its metabolism, leading to increased levels of amitriptyline in the body. This can result in adverse effects such as sedation, confusion, and potential serotonin syndrome.
Explanation:
1. Metoclopramide is known to inhibit CYP2D6 enzyme, which is responsible for metabolizing amitriptyline.
2. Increased amitriptyline levels can lead to enhanced sedative effects and central nervous system depression.
3. The combination can also increase the risk of serotonin syndrome due to the additive serotonergic effects of both drugs.
Summary:
B: Lithium - Lithium does not have a significant metabolic interaction with metoclopramide.
C: Zolpidem - Zolpidem is primarily metabolized by different enzymes and does not interact significantly with metoclopramide.
D: Paroxetine - Although both
Question 2
A pregnant client reports swelling in her feet and ankles. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to recommend?
A. Start taking a diuretic as needed daily
B. Limit fluid intake
C. Sit and elevate the feet
D. Lying down in supine position
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Sit and elevate the feet
Swelling in the feet and ankles during pregnancy is often due to fluid retention and pressure from the gravid uterus on lower extremity veins, a common occurrence in later trimesters. Sitting and elevating the feet is the most appropriate intervention, as it promotes venous return, reduces edema, and provides relief without risk. Diuretics are not recommended unless prescribed for a specific condition like preeclampsia, as they can disrupt fluid balance and harm the fetus. Limiting fluid intake is unsafe, as adequate hydration is essential for maternal and fetal health. Lying supine may worsen swelling by compressing the inferior vena cava, reducing circulation. Elevation is a simple, effective, and safe nursing recommendation, aligning with physiological principles of gravity-assisted drainage and comfort care in pregnancy, avoiding unnecessary medicalization of a normal symptom.
Question 3
The nurse obtains a health history from an older adult with a prosthetic mitral valve who has symptoms of infective endocarditis (IE). Which question by the nurse helps identify a risk factor for IE?
A. “Do you have a history of a heart attack?â€
B. “Is there a family history of endocarditis?â€
C. “Have you had any recent immunizations?â€
D. “Have you had dental work done recently?â€
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — “Have you had dental work done recently?â€
The correct answer is D: "Have you had dental work done recently?" This question helps identify a risk factor for infective endocarditis (IE) as dental procedures can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream, potentially leading to IE in individuals with prosthetic heart valves. Dental work is a known risk factor for IE due to the transient bacteremia that can occur during dental procedures, especially in those with prosthetic heart valves. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the risk factors for IE in this specific scenario. Asking about a history of heart attack (A) is not directly related to IE risk factors. Family history of endocarditis (B) may have some relevance, but it is not as directly linked to the current situation as dental work. Recent immunizations (C) are important for overall health but not a specific risk factor for IE in this case.
Question 4
The nurse is reviewing the characteristics of breath sounds. Which statement about bronchovesicular breath sounds is true? Bronchovesicular breath sounds are:
A. Musical in quality.
B. Usually caused by a pathologic disease.
C. Expected near the major airways.
D. Similar to bronchial sounds except shorter in duration.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Expected near the major airways.
Step 1: Bronchovesicular breath sounds are expected near the major airways.
Step 2: Bronchovesicular sounds are heard over the 1st and 2nd intercostal spaces along the sternal border at the front and between the scapulae on the back.
Step 3: The sounds are a combination of bronchial (heard over trachea and major bronchi) and vesicular (heard over peripheral lung fields) sounds.
Step 4: The characteristics include moderate pitch and intensity, with equal inspiration and expiration.
Step 5: Choice C is the correct answer as it accurately describes the expected location of bronchovesicular breath sounds near the major airways.
Summary:
A: Incorrect - Bronchovesicular breath sounds are not musical in quality.
B: Incorrect - Bronchovesicular breath sounds are not usually caused by a pathologic disease.
D: Incorrect - Bronchovesicular breath sounds are a combination of bronchial
Question 5
Which of the following nursing groups provides a definition and scope of practice for nursing?
A. ICN
B. AAN
C. ANA
D. The Joint Commission
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — ANA
The correct answer is C: ANA. The American Nurses Association (ANA) provides a comprehensive definition and scope of practice for nursing in the United States. ANA establishes standards, guidelines, and policies to guide nursing practice and ensure quality patient care.
Incorrect choices:
A: ICN - The International Council of Nurses (ICN) is a global organization that represents nurses worldwide, but it does not specifically define the scope of nursing practice in the U.S.
B: AAN - The American Academy of Nursing (AAN) is an organization that focuses on recognizing nursing excellence and leadership, but it does not set standards for nursing practice.
D: The Joint Commission - The Joint Commission is a healthcare accreditation organization that focuses on patient safety and quality improvement, but it does not provide a specific definition and scope of practice for nursing.
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Question 6
Cyrill with severe head trauma sustained in a car accident is admitted to the intensive care unit. Thirty-six hours later, the client's urine output suddenly rises above 200 ml/hour, leading the nurse to suspect diabetes insipidus. Which laboratory findings support the nurse's suspicion of diabetes insipidus?
A. Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels
B. Below-normal urine and serum osmolality levels
C. Above-normal urine osmolality level, below-normal serum osmolality level
D. Below-normal urine osmolality level, above-normal serum osmolality level
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D. Diabetes insipidus results from inadequate production or action of antidiuretic hormone, leading to excessive urine output and dilute urine. In this case, the sudden rise in urine output above 200 ml/hour indicates a large volume of dilute urine being excreted. Therefore, the urine osmolality will be low (below normal) due to its diluteness. On the other hand, the serum osmolality will be high (above normal) because the body is unable to retain water properly, leading to dehydration and concentration of solutes in the blood. This imbalance in osmolality levels between urine and serum supports the nurse's suspicion of diabetes insipidus.
Incorrect choices:
A: Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels - This is incorrect because in diabetes insipidus, urine osmolality is low (dilute) and serum osmolality is high.
B: Below-normal urine and serum os
A patient with schizophrenia has been stabilized in the Crisis Center and is about to be discharged. He will be living with his family, but the family knows nothing about the patient's illness, its treatment, or the role they can play in his recovery. Which activity would be most beneficial for the family to attend?
A. Psychoanalytic group
B. Psychoeducational group
C. Individual counseling
D. Family therapy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Psychoeducational group. This option is most beneficial as it will provide the family with education about schizophrenia, its treatment, and the role they can play in the patient's recovery. This will help the family better understand the illness, how to support the patient, and how to communicate effectively.
Explanation:
1. Psychoanalytic group (A) focuses on exploring unconscious thoughts and emotions, which may not be as practical or helpful for educating the family about schizophrenia.
2. Individual counseling (C) may not involve the family as a whole and may not provide the necessary education and support for the family unit.
3. Family therapy (D) could be beneficial, but psychoeducational group specifically targets providing knowledge and skills needed to support the patient's recovery, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
When evaluating care of an immobilized patient, which action will the nurse take?
A. Focus on whether the interdisciplinary team is satisfied with the care.
B. Compare the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes in the care plan.
C. Involve primarily the patient's family and health care team to determine goal achievement.
D. Use objective data solely in determining whether interventions have been successful.
Correct answer:
When evaluating the care of an immobilized patient, the nurse should focus on assessing outcomes and response to nursing care. By comparing the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes identified during planning, the nurse can determine the effectiveness of the interventions implemented. This process allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because the satisfaction of the interdisciplinary team does not directly reflect the patient's outcomes and response to care. Choice C is incorrect as it mainly focuses on the involvement of the patient's family and healthcare team, which may not provide a holistic evaluation of the patient's care. Choice D is incorrect as relying solely on objective data may lead to overlooking important subjective aspects of the patient's response and outcomes, which are also crucial in evaluating care effectively.
Which of the following is a dimension for characterizing behavioural consequences?
A. immediate or delayed
B. short-term or long-term
C. limited or extensive
D. compliance or performance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: short-term or long-term. This dimension characterizes behavioral consequences based on the time frame over which the consequences are observed. Short-term consequences have immediate effects, while long-term consequences have effects that manifest over an extended period. This dimension is important in understanding the impact of behaviors and helps in predicting future behavior patterns.
A: immediate or delayed - This dimension focuses on the timing of consequences rather than the duration, making it different from the dimension in the question.
C: limited or extensive - This dimension describes the scope or magnitude of consequences, not the time frame over which they occur.
D: compliance or performance - This dimension pertains to different aspects of behavior (following rules vs. achieving outcomes) rather than the duration of consequences.
A client tells the oncology nurse about an upcoming vacation to the beach to celebrate completing radiation treatments for cancer. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Avoid getting salt water on the radiation site.
B. Do not expose the radiation area to direct sunlight.
C. Have a wonderful time and enjoy your vacation!
D. Remember you should not drink alcohol for a year.
Correct answer:
Post-radiation skin at the treatment site remains highly sensitive to ultraviolet (UV) rays due to damage to the epidermal layer, increasing the risk of burns, irritation, or delayed healing. The nurse's most appropriate response is to advise against exposing the radiation area to direct sunlight, a precaution that persists for at least a year after treatment to protect skin integrity. Avoiding saltwater isn't a standard concern unless the skin is broken, which isn't indicated here. Simply wishing the client well ignores the teaching opportunity and potential risk. The alcohol restriction isn't a universal post-radiation rule unless tied to specific treatments or conditions not mentioned. Educating about sun exposure empowers the client to enjoy the vacation safely, aligning with nursing's preventive care focus and ensuring the celebration isn't marred by avoidable complications.
If a radioimmunoassay is properly conducted and the amount of radioactive hormone bound to antibody is low, this would indicate which of the following?
A. Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high
B. Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are low
C. More antibody is needed
D. Less radioactive hormone is needed
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Plasma levels of endogenous hormone are high. When the amount of radioactive hormone bound to the antibody is low in a radioimmunoassay, it indicates that there is a high concentration of non-radioactive, endogenous hormone present in the sample competing for binding sites on the antibody. This competition results in fewer radioactive hormones binding to the antibody. Therefore, the low radioactive hormone binding suggests an abundance of non-radioactive hormone in the sample.
Choice B is incorrect because low levels of radioactive hormone binding do not indicate low plasma levels of endogenous hormone. Choice C is incorrect as more antibody wouldn't affect the binding of radioactive hormone if endogenous hormone levels are high. Choice D is incorrect because the amount of radioactive hormone needed is not related to the binding observed in the assay.
A nurse is planning a seminar about promoting healthy lifestyles for a group of older adults in the community. Which topics should the nurse include?
A. Nutrition
B. Exercise
C. Social activity
D. Sleep habits
Correct answer:
For older adults, a seminar on healthy lifestyles should cover key areas to boost wellness and prevent decline. Nutrition emphasizing balanced diets with calcium or fiber supports bone health and digestion, countering age-related risks like osteoporosis. Exercise, like walking or tai chi, maintains mobility and heart health, reducing falls crucial as muscle mass dips. Social activity combats isolation, linked to depression in seniors, fostering mental well-being via clubs or visits. Sleep habits address changes like lighter sleep promoting rest to aid cognition and immunity. All apply, but nutrition anchors the plan, as dietary needs shift with aging e.g., less sodium for hypertension. Nursing's role here blends these into actionable tips, leveraging evidence that holistic lifestyles cut chronic illness rates, ensuring older adults thrive, not just survive, in community settings.
A 19-year-old female comes to your office, complaining of a clear discharge from her right breast for 2 months. She states that she noticed it when she and her boyfriend were 'messing around' and he squeezed her nipple. She continues to have this discharge anytime she squeezes that nipple. She denies any trauma to her breasts. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies any pregnancies. Both of her parents are healthy. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and drinks three to four beers a week. On examination her breasts are symmetric with no skin changes. You are able to express clear discharge from her right nipple. You feel no discrete masses and her axillae are normal. The remainder of her heart, lung, abdominal, and pelvic examinations are unremarkable. A urine pregnancy test is negative. What cause of nipple discharge is the most likely in her circumstance?
A. Benign breast abnormality
B. Breast cancer
C. Nonpuerperal galactorrhea
Correct answer:
The most likely cause of nipple discharge in this 19-year-old female is a benign breast abnormality. This is supported by her age, absence of skin changes, negative pregnancy test, and lack of other significant findings on examination. The clear discharge that she experiences specifically upon squeezing the nipple is consistent with a benign etiology such as intraductal papilloma or duct ectasia. Breast cancer is less likely due to her young age and absence of risk factors. Nonpuerperal galactorrhea typically presents with milky discharge and is usually associated with hormonal imbalances, which are not evident in this case. Other systemic causes like thyroid disorders or medications are not suggested based on the given information. Therefore, based on her clinical presentation and examination findings, a benign breast abnormality is the most likely cause of her nipple discharge.
A 10-year-old boy is being prepared for a bone marrow transplant. The nurse can determine that the child understands this treatment when he says:
A. I'll be much better after this blood goes to my bones.
B. I won't feel too good until my body makes healthy cells.
C. This will help all of the medicine they give me to work better.
D. You won't have to wear a mask and gown after my transplant.
Correct answer:
A bone marrow transplant (BMT) replaces diseased marrow (e.g., in leukemia) with healthy stem cells, but recovery is slow new, functional blood cells take weeks to months to regenerate, during which the child may feel unwell due to immunosuppression and engraftment challenges. The statement I won't feel too good until my body makes healthy cells' shows the boy grasps this delay, reflecting realistic understanding critical for coping and consent in pediatric care. Feeling better immediately after infusion is inaccurate initial post-BMT phases often worsen symptoms. Enhancing medicine efficacy isn't the goal; BMT is the therapy. Masks and gowns persist post-transplant due to infection risk until immunity recovers. The nurse's validation of this insight ensures the child is prepared, aligning with oncology's focus on patient education and emotional support during complex treatments.
When examining the nares of a 45-year-old patient who has complaints of rhinorrhea, itching of the nose and eyes, and sneezing, the nurse notices the following: pale turbinates, swelling of the turbinates, and clear rhinorrhea. Which of these conditions is most likely the cause?
A. Nasal polyps
B. Acute sinusitis
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Acute rhinitis
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: C. Allergic rhinitis
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of itching, sneezing, and clear rhinorrhea are classic signs of allergic rhinitis. The pale and swollen turbinates also support this diagnosis, as they are common findings in allergic rhinitis due to inflammation from allergens.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Nasal polyps - Nasal polyps typically present with nasal congestion, loss of smell, and may be associated with asthma. They are not commonly associated with clear rhinorrhea and itching.
B: Acute sinusitis - Acute sinusitis is characterized by facial pain, pressure, purulent nasal discharge, and fever. The absence of these symptoms makes acute sinusitis less likely.
D: Acute rhinitis - Acute rhinitis, or the common cold, usually presents with thick nasal discharge, sore throat, and low-grade fever. The clear rhinorrhea and itching in this patient are more
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 57 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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