You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The most important skills needed to obtain accurate information from your client is:
A. Teaching and assessment
B. Cognitive and teaching
C. Good communication and critical thinking
D. Psychomotor and courage
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Good communication and critical thinking
Good communication and critical thinking are the most crucial skills for obtaining accurate client information. Communication listening, questioning, clarifying builds trust, encouraging honest responses (e.g., detailed pain history). Critical thinking analyzes these responses, spotting inconsistencies or probing deeper (e.g., linking fatigue to sleep issues), ensuring data reliability. Teaching and assessment are roles, not skills for gathering data; teaching informs, doesn't collect. Cognitive skills overlap with critical thinking, but pairing with teaching misses communication's primacy. Psychomotor skills (e.g., taking vitals) and courage are useful but secondary manual tasks don't extract perceptions, and bravery doesn't ensure accuracy. Communication and critical thinking together elicit and interpret client input effectively, foundational for a precise, comprehensive assessment in nursing.
Question 2
A toddler is dehydrated as the result of complications from varicella-zoster virus. Fluid filled vesicles are observed on the face and chest. Which actions should the nurse implement? Select one that doesn't apply
A. Place in negative air-flow room.
B. Provide surgical masks for visitors.
C. Cover lesions with sterile gauze dressing.
D. Explain guidelines for contact precautions to family.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Cover lesions with sterile gauze dressing.
1. The nurse should place the client on airborne precautions. A private, negative air-flow room with at least six to twelve exchanges per hour is required. All health care personnel should wear an N95 respirator each time they enter the room. 2. The nurse should provide surgical masks for visitors. The nurse should also place a surgical mask on the client if transport outside of the private room is required. 4. The nurse should explain guidelines for contact precautions to the family. In addition to airborne precautions, standard and contact precautions should be maintained until lesions are dry and crusted. 5. A positive immune status must be confirmed. Evidence of immunity includes any of the following: documentation of age-appropriate varicella vaccination; laboratory evidence of immunity or confirmation of disease; diagnosis or verification of a history of varicella by a health care provider.
Question 3
The nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. The nurse is using open gloving to apply the sterile gloves. Which steps will the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. While putting on the first glove, touch only the outside surface of the glove.
B. With gloved dominant hand, slip fingers underneath second glove cuff.
C. Remove outer glove package by tearing the package open.
D. Lay glove package on clean flat surface above waistline.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Lay glove package on clean flat surface above waistline.
The correct answer is D because laying the glove package on a clean flat surface above the waistline helps maintain sterility. Placing the package above waistline prevents contamination from any potential contact with the clothing. This step ensures that the gloves remain sterile and ready for use during the catheter insertion procedure.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: While putting on the first glove, touching only the outside surface of the glove is correct, but this step alone does not address maintaining sterility during the open gloving process.
B: Slipping fingers underneath the second glove cuff with the gloved dominant hand is incorrect in the context of open gloving as it introduces the risk of contamination.
C: Removing the outer glove package by tearing the package open is not recommended for open gloving as it can compromise the sterility of the gloves.
Question 4
Which of these clinical situations would the nurse consider to be outside normal limits?
A. A patient has had one pregnancy and states that she believes she may be entering menopause. Her breast examination reveals breasts that are soft and slightly sagging.
B. A patient has never been pregnant. Her breast examination reveals large pendulous breasts that have a firm, transverse ridge along the lower quadrant in both breasts.
C. A patient has never been pregnant and reports that she should begin her period tomorrow. Her breast examination reveals breast tissue that is nodular and somewhat engorged. She states that the examination was slightly painful.
D. A patient has had two pregnancies, and she breastfed both of her children. Her youngest child is now 10 years old. Her breast examination reveals breast tissue that is somewhat soft, and she has a small amount of thick yellow discharge from both nipples.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — A patient has had two pregnancies, and she breastfed both of her children. Her youngest child is now 10 years old. Her breast examination reveals breast tissue that is somewhat soft, and she has a small amount of thick yellow discharge from both nipples.
The correct answer is D because the presence of thick yellow discharge from both nipples in a patient who has had two pregnancies and breastfed her children is outside the normal limits. This could indicate a condition such as galactorrhea, which is abnormal lactation unrelated to breastfeeding. The discharge may be due to hormonal imbalances or other underlying issues that require further investigation.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Soft and slightly sagging breasts in a patient entering menopause can be considered within normal limits due to hormonal changes.
B: Firm, transverse ridges along the lower quadrant of breasts in a patient who has never been pregnant may indicate fibrocystic changes, which are common and typically not concerning.
C: Nodular and engorged breast tissue with slight pain before menstruation is a common premenstrual symptom and is usually within normal limits.
Question 5
The nurse is caring for a 46-year-old patient recently diagnosed with the early stages of lung cancer. The nurse is aware that the preferred method of treating patients with nonsmall cell tumors is what?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiation
C. Surgical resection
D. Bronchoscopic opening of the airway
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Surgical resection
For early-stage non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), surgical resection is the preferred treatment when tumors are localized, there's no metastasis, and the patient has adequate cardiopulmonary reserve. This approach e.g., lobectomy offers the best chance for cure by physically removing the malignancy, leveraging NSCLC's slower growth compared to small cell lung cancer (SCLC). Chemotherapy and radiation are adjuncts or alternatives when surgery isn't feasible (e.g., advanced disease, poor surgical candidacy), targeting systemic or residual cancer. Bronchoscopy relieves airway obstruction but doesn't treat the tumor itself. The nurse's awareness of surgery's primacy informs patient education on procedure risks (e.g., infection, pneumothorax), recovery (e.g., pain management), and prognosis, aligning with guidelines like those from the American Cancer Society for optimizing outcomes in early NSCLC.
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Question 6
To ensure that a research study is ethical, a nurse researcher must observe which human rights for participants?
A. Self-determinism
B. Privacy
C. Anonymity
D. Cure for illness
Correct answer:
Ethical nursing research upholds participants' rights, guided by the 1985 ANA guidelines, still relevant today. Self-determinism ensures participants choose involvement freely, without coercion, respecting autonomy. Privacy safeguards their personal information and dignity, preventing unauthorized disclosure. Anonymity protects identity, ensuring data can't be linked to individuals, fostering trust. Fair treatment guarantees equitable selection and care, while protection from harm minimizes risks. A cure for illness isn't a right, as research seeks knowledge, not guaranteed outcomes. These principles self-determinism, privacy, anonymity, and more balance scientific goals with human dignity, ensuring participants are respected as individuals, not mere subjects. This ethical foundation is critical for credible, humane research, safeguarding vulnerable populations and upholding nursing's integrity.
Nurse Lourdes is teaching a client recovering from addisonian crisis about the need to take fludrocortisone acetate and hydrocortisone at home. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
A. "I'll take my hydrocortisone in the late afternoon, before dinner."Â
B. "I'll take all of my hydrocortisone in the morning, right after I wake up."Â
C. "I'll take two-thirds of the dose when I wake up and one-third in the late afternoon."Â
D. "I'll take the entire dose at bedtime."Â
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because it demonstrates an understanding of the dosing schedule for both medications. Fludrocortisone acetate is usually taken in the morning to mimic the body's natural cortisol release, while hydrocortisone is typically taken in divided doses throughout the day to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Option C shows the client plans to take two-thirds of the dose in the morning and one-third in the late afternoon, aligning with the recommended dosing schedule.
Option A is incorrect because taking hydrocortisone in the late afternoon is not ideal for mimicking the body's natural cortisol release. Option B is incorrect as taking all hydrocortisone in the morning may lead to suboptimal control of adrenal insufficiency throughout the day. Option D is incorrect because taking the entire dose at bedtime does not align with the recommended dosing schedules for these medications.
What is the primary reason for performing light palpation before deep palpation during an abdominal examination?
A. To assess for organ size.
B. To accustom the patient to being touched.
C. To detect deep masses.
D. To check for rebound tenderness.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: To accustom the patient to being touched. This is because starting with light palpation helps the patient to relax and become accustomed to the examiner's touch, reducing discomfort and anxiety. This approach also allows the examiner to gradually assess for tenderness, muscle tone, and superficial masses before moving on to deep palpation to evaluate deeper structures.
Incorrect answers:
A: To assess for organ size - This is incorrect because assessing organ size is typically done through techniques such as percussion or imaging studies, not palpation.
C: To detect deep masses - This is incorrect because deep masses are typically assessed during deep palpation, not light palpation.
D: To check for rebound tenderness - This is incorrect because rebound tenderness is a specific test for peritoneal irritation, which is typically assessed after palpation, not before.
What can the paramedic expect to find when evaluating the pupillary response of a patient suspected of suffering from herniation?
A. Bilateral pupil dilation
B. A unilaterally, unequal and non-reactive pupil
C. Bilaterally, unequal and non-responsive pupils
D. Sluggish response, but equal pupils
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Bilateral pupil dilation. When evaluating a patient suspected of suffering from herniation, the paramedic can expect to find bilateral pupil dilation due to increased intracranial pressure affecting the oculomotor nerve. This dilation is a result of the pressure compressing the nerve fibers, leading to loss of parasympathetic tone and unopposed sympathetic tone causing the pupils to dilate.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: A unilaterally, unequal and non-reactive pupil - This is more indicative of a localized eye injury or nerve damage, not herniation.
C: Bilaterally, unequal and non-responsive pupils - This may indicate severe neurological damage or brainstem dysfunction, not specifically related to herniation.
D: Sluggish response, but equal pupils - This response is unlikely in cases of herniation where rapid changes in pupillary response are more common.
The nurse is teaching a parent to administer medications using a child's gastrostomy tube. The parent asks why it is necessary to give water after each medication. The nurse explains that the water is given for which purpose?
A. To decrease gastrointestinal upset
B. To dilute the medication and enhance absorption
C. To ensure that all medication is infused into the stomach
D. To improve overall hydration
Correct answer:
When administering medications via a gastrostomy tube, flushing with water afterward ensures the full dose reaches the stomach and prevents clogging of the tube. Option C is correct because this action guarantees that no medication remains in the tube, which could reduce the effective dose or block the lumen, affecting future administrations. Option A is incorrect as water flushing doesn't directly address gastrointestinal upset, which depends on the drug itself. Option B is wrong because dilution after administration doesn't enhance absorption; it's about delivery completion. Option D is incidental while hydration may improve, it's not the primary purpose. The nurse's explanation in C emphasizes the practical and safety aspects of tube maintenance and accurate dosing, critical for effective therapy in patients reliant on enteral routes, ensuring the parent understands the procedural necessity.
The following measure can minimise pituitary-adrenal suppression during long-term corticosteroid therapy:
A. Use of betamethasone in place of prednisolone
B. Use of prednisolone on alternate days
C. Division of the daily dose in three equal 8hourly doses
D. Administration of the total daily dose at bed time
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Division of the daily dose in three equal 8-hourly doses. Dividing the daily dose helps maintain more stable blood levels of corticosteroids, reducing the risk of pituitary-adrenal suppression. By spreading the dose evenly throughout the day, the body is less likely to experience sudden peaks and troughs in cortisol levels. This approach mimics the body's natural cortisol production pattern, promoting a more balanced hormonal environment.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Using betamethasone instead of prednisolone does not address the issue of minimizing pituitary-adrenal suppression.
B: Using prednisolone on alternate days may lead to fluctuating cortisol levels, which can contribute to pituitary-adrenal suppression.
D: Administering the total daily dose at bedtime does not provide the consistent cortisol levels needed to minimize pituitary-adrenal suppression.
What is the primary function of progesterone during pregnancy?
A. Stimulate uterine contractions
B. Support the development of the fetus
C. Maintain the uterine lining for implantation
D. Promote breast development
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Maintain the uterine lining for implantation. Progesterone plays a crucial role in preparing and maintaining the uterine lining to support the implantation and growth of the fertilized egg. This hormone helps create a suitable environment for the developing embryo by thickening the uterine lining and preventing its shedding.
Explanation for other choices:
A: Stimulate uterine contractions - This is incorrect as progesterone actually inhibits uterine contractions during pregnancy to prevent premature labor.
B: Support the development of the fetus - While progesterone indirectly supports fetal development by maintaining the uterine environment, its primary function is not directly related to fetal development.
D: Promote breast development - Progesterone does play a role in breast development during pregnancy, but its primary function is not focused on this aspect.
The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the past 3 days. Which finding is important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
A. Respirations are 36 breaths/min.
B. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1.
C. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally.
D. Hyperresonance to percussion is present.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because an increased respiratory rate of 36 breaths/min in a patient with COPD and worsening dyspnea can indicate respiratory distress or impending respiratory failure. This finding is crucial to report promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
Choice B is incorrect because an anterior-posterior chest ratio of 1:1 is within normal limits and not directly related to the patient's current respiratory distress.
Choice C is incorrect as decreased lung expansion bilaterally can be expected in a patient with COPD and may not necessarily warrant immediate concern unless it is significantly asymmetric or accompanied by other concerning signs.
Choice D is incorrect as hyperresonance to percussion may be a typical finding in COPD due to increased lung volumes and is not an immediate priority compared to the elevated respiratory rate.
A patient at the clinic says, “I always walk after dinner, but lately my leg cramps and hurts after just a few minutes. The pain goes away after I stop walking, though.†What focused assessment should the nurse make?
A. Look for the presence of tortuous veins bilaterally on the legs.
B. Ask about any skin color changes that occur in response to cold.
C. Assess for unilateral swelling, redness, and tenderness of either leg.
D. Palpate for the presence of dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms suggest a possible vascular issue, such as peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Palpating for the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can help assess the adequacy of blood flow in the lower extremities. A decrease or absence of these pulses may indicate compromised blood flow, leading to symptoms like leg cramps and pain with activity.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's symptoms of leg cramps and pain with walking, which are suggestive of a vascular etiology. Looking for tortuous veins, skin color changes in response to cold, or unilateral swelling, redness, and tenderness may be indicative of other conditions like varicose veins, Raynaud's phenomenon, or deep vein thrombosis, respectively. However, these symptoms are not consistent with the patient's presentation in this scenario.
A 25-year-old woman presents with a complaint of fatigue and muscle weakness. On examination, she has ptosis and weakness of the proximal muscles of the upper limbs. Her vital signs are stable, and laboratory tests reveal a positive anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody test. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 49 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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