You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five fundamentals questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
During resuscitation ,which one of the following is the most reliable as a guide to volume replacement?
A. Heart rate
B. Hematocrit
C. Blood pressure
D. Urinary output
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Urinary output
The correct answer is D: Urinary output. Urinary output is the most reliable guide to volume replacement during resuscitation because it directly reflects the perfusion of vital organs and the body's ability to eliminate excess fluid. Adequate urinary output indicates effective fluid resuscitation, while decreased urinary output may indicate inadequate perfusion and the need for further volume replacement. Monitoring urinary output helps ensure appropriate fluid balance and prevents complications such as fluid overload or organ damage.
Other choices are not as reliable for volume replacement guidance:
A: Heart rate can be influenced by various factors such as pain, stress, medications, and underlying medical conditions.
B: Hematocrit reflects the concentration of red blood cells in the blood, which may not accurately reflect volume status during resuscitation.
C: Blood pressure can be affected by many factors such as medications, pain, and underlying conditions, making it less reliable as a sole guide for volume replacement.
Question 2
Which of the following actions represents the use of secondary prevention to reduce environmental health risks?
A. Collecting blood specimens from preschool children to check for lead levels
B. Meeting with local government officials to request that the city clean up a hazardous vacant lot
C. Referring a child with toxic lead levels to a neurologist
D. Teaching parents of a 2-year-old about the dangers of lead-based paint in older homes
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Collecting blood specimens from preschool children to check for lead levels
The correct answer is A because it involves early detection and intervention to prevent health problems from worsening. By collecting blood specimens from preschool children to check for lead levels, it allows for early identification of potential exposure to lead, enabling timely interventions to reduce or eliminate the environmental health risk. This is a key aspect of secondary prevention, which aims to detect and address health issues at an early stage to prevent further harm.
Summary of why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Meeting with local government officials is more about advocacy and initiating primary prevention measures rather than early detection and intervention.
C: Referring a child with toxic lead levels to a neurologist is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on managing and treating existing health problems rather than early detection and prevention.
D: Teaching parents about lead-based paint is more about education and primary prevention, rather than early detection and intervention through screening.
Question 3
Which nursing action is most effective in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine.
B. Administering antibiotics prophylactically.
C. Suctioning the airway every hour.
D. Keeping the patient sedated at all times.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Performing oral care with chlorhexidine.
The correct answer is A: Performing oral care with chlorhexidine. This action is effective in preventing VAP by reducing the bacterial load in the oral cavity, which can decrease the risk of aspiration of pathogens into the lungs. Chlorhexidine has antimicrobial properties that help to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. Regular oral care can help maintain oral hygiene and prevent colonization of pathogens.
Choice B, administering antibiotics prophylactically, is not recommended as routine prophylactic use of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance and disrupt the normal flora, potentially causing more harm than good.
Choice C, suctioning the airway every hour, is important for maintaining airway patency but is not the most effective action for preventing VAP. Over-suctioning can irritate the airway and increase the risk of infection.
Choice D, keeping the patient sedated at all times, is not a recommended practice as it can lead to complications such as ventilator-associated pneumonia. Sedation can impair the
Question 4
A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?
A. Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization.
B. Only review the client's current medications.
C. Provide a list of medications without checking for interactions.
D. Discuss the client's medication history without verification.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization.
The correct answer is A: Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization. This step is crucial in ensuring the accuracy of medication reconciliation. By comparing the current prescriptions with the medications administered during the hospital stay, the nurse can identify any discrepancies, omissions, or duplications in the medications. This comprehensive comparison helps prevent medication errors and ensures that the client's home medications align with the treatment received in the hospital. Choice B is incorrect because solely reviewing the client's current medications may overlook important changes or additions made during the hospitalization. Choice C is incorrect as providing a list of medications without checking for interactions can lead to potential adverse effects or drug interactions. Choice D is incorrect as discussing the client's medication history without verification may not provide an accurate representation of the medications the client actually received during the hospital stay.
Question 5
The nurse reviews the nurses' notes from 1300, 1500, 2000, and 2020. Based on the information, which is the priority action by the nurse?
A. Ensure that endotracheal intubation is ready at the bedside.
B. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
C. Have the defibrillator ready at the bedside.
D. Prepare to administer sugammadex medication.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Have the defibrillator ready at the bedside.
Without specific notes, the priority action hinges on common critical scenarios. Having the defibrillator ready at the bedside (C) is the most urgent action if the notes suggest cardiac instability (e.g., arrhythmias), as defibrillation addresses life-threatening ventricular rhythms per ACLS protocols. Ensuring endotracheal intubation readiness (A) is vital for airway compromise, but respiratory decline typically progresses slower than cardiac arrest. Preparing protamine sulfate (B) reverses heparin in bleeding, but this is less immediate unless hemorrhage is explicit. Sugammadex (D) reverses neuromuscular blockers, relevant post-surgery, not broadly urgent. C is selected as the priority due to its alignment with rapid life-saving intervention. Rationale: Cardiac arrest is a leading cause of death in critical care; a defibrillator's immediate availability can restore rhythm within minutes, critical when notes imply deteriorating vitals, outweighing preparatory actions like intubation or drug administration in urgency and impact.
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Question 6
A nurse cares for a first-generation American whose family emigrated from Germany. Which worldview about the source of knowledge would this patient likely have?
A. Knowledge is acquired through use of affective or feeling senses.
B. Science is the foundation of knowledge and proves something exists.
C. Knowledge develops by striving for transcendence of the mind and body.
D. Knowledge evolves from an individual's relationship with a supreme being.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because individuals from a German cultural background often value and prioritize scientific evidence and rational thinking in acquiring knowledge. Germans have a strong tradition of scientific achievements and emphasis on logic and empirical evidence. This worldview aligns with the belief that science is the foundation of knowledge and provides tangible proof of existence.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because:
A: Knowledge acquired through affective senses is more subjective and based on personal feelings, which does not align with the German cultural emphasis on empirical evidence.
C: Striving for transcendence of mind and body is more associated with Eastern philosophies like Buddhism or Hinduism, not typical of German cultural perspectives.
D: The idea of knowledge evolving from a relationship with a supreme being is more aligned with religious beliefs, which may not necessarily reflect the worldview of a first-generation German-American who values scientific evidence and rational thinking.
A. Multinucleate, with rhythmic contractions and a pacemaker
B. Uninucleate, with rhythmic contractions but no pacemaker
C. Multinucleate, with rhythmic contractions but no pacemaker
D. Multinucleate, with rhythmic contractions or a pacemaker
Correct answer:
Skeletal muscle fibers are multinucleate, formed by myoblast fusion during development, hosting dozens of nuclei per cell for protein synthesis supporting contraction. Unlike cardiac muscle, which contracts rhythmically via an intrinsic pacemaker (sinoatrial node), skeletal muscle lacks automaticity, relying on somatic motor neuron signals for voluntary action. Rhythmic contractions occur in cardiac muscle, not skeletal, though skeletal can sustain rhythmic activity (e.g., shivering) if neurally driven, not self-initiated. Uninucleate cells typify smooth muscle, not skeletal. The 'or' phrasing suggests potential for rhythmicity or pacemaker presence, but skeletal muscle's defining trait is voluntary, multinucleate structure without inherent rhythmicity. Histology confirms its striated, multinucleate fibers, contrasting with cardiac's pacemaker-driven rhythm or smooth's uninucleate spontaneity. Physiology texts emphasize this dependency on external innervation, distinguishing skeletal muscle's control and structure in locomotion.
Which of these statements are true regarding disinfection and cleaning? (Select all that apply.)
A. Proper cleaning requires mechanical removal of all soil from an object or area.
B. Routine environmental cleaning is an example of medical asepsis.
C. When cleaning a wound, wipe around the wound edge first and then clean inward toward the center of the wound.
D. Cleaning in a direction from the least to the most contaminated area helps reduce infections.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Routine environmental cleaning is an example of medical asepsis. Medical asepsis refers to practices that help reduce the transmission of pathogenic microorganisms. Routine environmental cleaning, such as cleaning surfaces in healthcare settings, is a key component of maintaining a clean and safe environment to prevent the spread of infections. This practice helps to eliminate or reduce the number of microorganisms present on surfaces, thereby decreasing the risk of contamination and infection.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect:
A: Proper cleaning requires mechanical removal of all soil from an object or area. This statement is true, but it does not specifically pertain to medical asepsis.
C: When cleaning a wound, wipe around the wound edge first and then clean inward toward the center of the wound. This statement is incorrect as the correct technique is to clean from the center outward to avoid contaminating the wound.
D: Cleaning in a direction from the least to the most contaminated area helps
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client. Which nursing action is defined as an activity(ies)/intervention(s)?
A. Holding the client's hand
B. Starting an IV
C. Educating clients
D. Diagnosing a medical condition
Correct answer:
Nursing interventions encompass a broad spectrum of actions aimed at meeting client needs, reflecting the profession's holistic approach. Holding the client's hand is a simple yet profound intervention that provides emotional support, comfort, and reassurance, addressing psychological well-being alongside physical care. Starting an IV is a technical procedure that delivers fluids or medications, directly impacting physiologic health. Educating clients empowers them with knowledge about their condition or self-care, fostering autonomy and health maintenance. However, diagnosing a medical condition falls outside nursing's scope, as it's a physician's responsibility to identify diseases based on clinical findings. Nurses assess, plan, and implement care based on those diagnoses, not make them. These interventions highlight nursing's diverse role from hands-on procedures to supportive gestures each tailored to improve client outcomes across physical, emotional, and educational dimensions, aligning with the profession's caring ethos.
You are on-scene with a patient who was struck by a car on her bicycle. She is conscious and alert but has a possible closed right mid-shaft femur fracture. The patient advises you that she is sixteen but does not need parental consent to be treated. Which of the following situations would make this statement true?
A. She can be treated under implied consent because her injury may become life-threatening
B. She is not an American citizen, visiting on a student visa
C. She is an emancipated minor granted by the court
D. She is an orphaned minor who lives alone
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: She is an emancipated minor granted by the court. An emancipated minor is legally considered an adult and can make medical decisions without parental consent. This situation would make the statement true because an emancipated minor has the legal authority to consent to their own treatment.
Rationale:
1. Emancipated minors are legally recognized as adults in terms of making medical decisions.
2. Emancipation grants the minor the right to make healthcare choices independently.
3. In this scenario, the patient being an emancipated minor means she can consent to treatment without involving her parents.
Summary of other choices:
A: Implied consent does not apply in this scenario as the patient is conscious and alert, and the injury is not immediately life-threatening.
B: Immigration status is not relevant to the patient's ability to consent to treatment without parental consent.
D: Being an orphaned minor does not automatically grant the ability to consent to treatment without parental consent.
A client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. Specific to this type of deficit, the nurse would document which of the following information related to the client's behavior?
A. Is disoriented to person, place, and time.
B. Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability.
C. Cannot recall what was eaten for breakfast today.
D. Demonstrates inability to add and subtract; does not know who is president.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability. This is because the limbic system is responsible for regulating emotions and behavior. A deficit in this area can lead to flat affect (lack of emotional expression) and emotional lability (rapid changes in emotions).
A: Disorientation to person, place, and time is more indicative of a deficit in cognitive function, commonly associated with the temporal lobe rather than the limbic system.
C: Difficulty recalling recent events like what was eaten for breakfast is related to memory impairment, typically associated with the hippocampus rather than the limbic system.
D: Inability to perform tasks like adding and subtracting or knowing the current president is more related to executive functioning and memory, associated with the frontal lobe rather than the limbic system.
In summary, the correct answer is B because it directly relates to the emotional and behavioral aspects affected by deficits in the limbic system, while the other choices are more
An 18-year-old college freshman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided lower abdominal pain and a foul yellow discharge. The pain began last night while she was having intercourse with her boyfriend. Afterward the pain became more severe and the discharge started. By this morning she had a fever of 101 degrees and walking was making the pain worse. Only lying very still makes the pain better. She has tried ibuprofen and acetaminophen without any improvement. She denies any nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She has had two past sexual partners. She uses the birth control patch instead of condoms. She smokes a half pack of cigarettes a day and drinks four to five beers per weekend night. She denies any illegal drug use. Her parents are both healthy. On examination you find a young woman who appears ill. Her temperature is 102 degrees and her pulse is elevated at 110. She is tender in the left lower quadrant but has no guarding or rebound. Speculum examination reveals yellow purulent drainage from the os. On palpation there is cervical motion tenderness and the left adnexa is swollen and tender. A urine analysis is unremarkable and the urine pregnancy test is pending. What is the best choice of diagnosis for this adnexal swelling?
A. Ovarian cyst
B. Tubal pregnancy
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct answer:
The correct diagnosis is C: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). The patient's symptoms of severe left-sided lower abdominal pain, foul yellow discharge, fever, tenderness in the left lower quadrant, cervical motion tenderness, and swollen/tender left adnexa are indicative of PID. The history of recent intercourse, multiple sexual partners, and use of birth control patch instead of condoms increase the risk of sexually transmitted infections, leading to PID. The key findings on examination, such as purulent drainage, cervical motion tenderness, and adnexal tenderness, support the diagnosis. PID is a serious infection that can lead to complications like infertility and ectopic pregnancy if not treated promptly.
Incorrect choices:
A: Ovarian cyst - Unlikely as symptoms are more indicative of an infectious process rather than a simple cyst.
B: Tubal pregnancy - While a tubal pregnancy can present with lower abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test, the presence of purulent discharge and cervical motion tenderness suggests
Which of the following is the feature of Alzheimer's disease?
A. Early memory loss
B. Recent memory loss
C. Recent and past memory loss
D. Global memory loss
Correct answer:
Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by memory impairment. Early memory loss (choice A) is a vague term but typically refers to initial stages where recent memory is more affected. Recent memory loss (choice B) is indeed an early hallmark, as patients struggle to recall recent events while retaining older memories. However, as the disease advances, both recent and past memory loss (choice C) occur, reflecting the spread of pathology across the brain. Global memory loss (choice D) implies a complete loss of all memory types, which is less specific to Alzheimer's progression and more indicative of severe, end-stage disease. Choice C is correct because it captures the typical progression where both recent and past memories are eventually impaired, aligning with clinical observations of Alzheimer's. Nurses must recognize this pattern to tailor interventions, such as memory aids for recent events in early stages and emotional support as past recall fades, ensuring comprehensive patient care.
A client admitted with delusions, hallucinations, and thought disorder has the admitting diagnosis schizophreniform disorder R/O organic pathology. Based on this information, the nurse can expect that the client will:
A. Undergo an MRI test
B. Have psychological testing
C. Have an immunologic assay performed
D. Participate in a dexamethasone suppression test
Correct answer:
Step 1: The client is admitted with symptoms suggestive of a psychotic disorder, specifically schizophreniform disorder.
Step 2: The admitting diagnosis includes ruling out organic pathology, indicating a need to investigate potential physical causes.
Step 3: An MRI test is a non-invasive imaging procedure that can help identify any structural abnormalities in the brain.
Step 4: This test is appropriate in ruling out organic causes of the symptoms presented by the client.
Step 5: Psychological testing (Choice B) is more focused on assessing cognitive and emotional functioning, not ruling out organic pathology.
Step 6: Immunologic assay (Choice C) is used to detect antibodies or antigens in the blood, not typically relevant in this context.
Step 7: Dexamethasone suppression test (Choice D) is used to assess for abnormalities related to cortisol levels in conditions like depression, not specific to ruling out organic pathology in psychotic disorders.
Summary: Choice A is correct because an MRI test is the most relevant
The nurse is preparing for an acute medication intervention, which route is understood to provide the most rapid delivery in to the circulation of blood?
A. The parenteral route
B. The topical route
C. The enteral route
D. Oral liquids
Correct answer:
In acute situations requiring immediate drug action, the route of administration significantly affects how quickly the medication reaches the bloodstream. The parenteral route, which includes intravenous, intramuscular, or subcutaneous injections, delivers the drug directly into the circulatory system or tissues, bypassing barriers like the gastrointestinal tract. Intravenous administration, in particular, provides the fastest onset because it avoids absorption delays, making it ideal for emergencies like cardiac arrest or severe infections. Topical application, such as creams, targets local areas and has minimal systemic absorption, rendering it slow for acute needs. The enteral route, involving the digestive system, and oral liquids, while convenient, require digestion and absorption, delaying entry into the bloodstream. The parenteral method's directness ensures rapid therapeutic effects, critical in life-threatening scenarios, and is widely recognized in nursing practice for its efficiency and reliability in urgent care.
LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 10 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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