LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 9

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LPN exams fundamentals practice questions set 9

You practice vitals, infection control, documentation, and the first nursing action when a patient is unstable. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.

Five fundamentals questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A 70-year-old alcoholic patient with acute lethargy, confusion, and incontinence is admitted to the hospital ED. His wife tells you that he fell down the stairs about a month ago but 'he didn't have a scratch afterward.' She feels that he has become gradually less active and sleepier over the last 10 days or so. Which of the following collaborative interventions will you implement first?

  1. A. Place on the hospital alcohol withdrawal protocol.
  2. B. Transfer to radiology for a CT scan.
  3. C. Insert a retention catheter to straight drainage.
  4. D. Give phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg PO.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Transfer to radiology for a CT scan.

The correct answer is B: Transfer to radiology for a CT scan. This is the first collaborative intervention to implement because the patient's history of falling down the stairs a month ago with subsequent absence of visible injuries raises concern for possible head trauma. The acute lethargy, confusion, and incontinence could be indicative of a traumatic brain injury or intracranial bleeding. A CT scan is crucial to assess for any structural brain abnormalities that may require immediate intervention. Choice A: Placing on the hospital alcohol withdrawal protocol is not the first priority as the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of a potential head injury rather than alcohol withdrawal. Choice C: Inserting a retention catheter to straight drainage may be necessary for managing incontinence, but it does not address the primary concern of assessing for potential head trauma. Choice D: Giving phenytoin (Dilantin) 100 mg PO is not appropriate as the patient's symptoms are not necessarily indicative of seizures and administering ant

Question 2

Which of the following is an example of operant conditioning?

  1. A. Dog learns to salivate on hearing a bell
  2. B. Rat presses lever to get food delivered
  3. C. Crow pecks at key for food delivery
  4. D. All of the above
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Rat presses lever to get food delivered

Operant conditioning involves learning through consequences, such as rewards or punishments, distinguishing it from classical conditioning. Choice A, a dog salivating at a bell, is an example of classical conditioning, where a neutral stimulus (bell) becomes associated with an unconditioned response (salivation) via repeated pairing, as demonstrated by Pavlov. In contrast, choice B, a rat pressing a lever for food, exemplifies operant conditioning, as the rat learns to perform an action (lever press) to receive a reward (food). Choice C, a crow pecking a key for food, also fits operant conditioning, as the behavior is reinforced by a positive outcome. Choice D, 'all of the above,' is incorrect because A is not operant conditioning. B is the correct answer as it clearly illustrates a behavior shaped by its consequence, a core principle of operant conditioning. Nurses apply this concept in behavior modification therapies, reinforcing positive actions to improve patient outcomes, making it critical to distinguish between these learning types.

Question 3

Differentiation of hysterical fit from epileptic fit:

  1. A. Occurs in sleep
  2. B. Injuries to person
  3. C. Incontinence
  4. D. Occurs when people are watching.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Occurs when people are watching.

Hysterical fits, also known as psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, differ significantly from epileptic fits in their presentation and triggers. Unlike epileptic seizures, which are caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain and can occur during sleep (choice A), hysterical fits typically do not. Epileptic seizures often result in physical injuries (choice B) due to uncontrolled movements and falls, and they may lead to incontinence (choice C) because of loss of bodily control during the event. In contrast, hysterical fits are more likely to occur in the presence of an audience (choice D), as they are often linked to psychological stressors or a need for attention. This situational occurrence distinguishes them from the involuntary nature of epilepsy. Nurses must assess these differences to provide appropriate care, as managing a hysterical fit involves addressing psychological factors rather than administering anti-seizure medication. Thus, 'occurs when people are watching' is the key differentiator, making D the correct answer.

Question 4

What is the largest part of the human brain?

  1. A. Mid brain
  2. B. Medulla Oblongata
  3. C. Cerebrum
  4. D. Cerebellum
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Cerebrum

The cerebrum, occupying the upper cranial cavity, is the human brain's largest part, comprising about 80% of its mass. Located above the brainstem and cerebellum, it handles higher functions thinking, memory, and voluntary movement via its cerebral cortex, divided into four lobes: frontal (problem-solving), parietal (sensation), temporal (auditory processing), and occipital (vision). Its size and convoluted surface, with gyri and sulci, maximize neuron density, supporting complex cognition unique to humans. The midbrain, a small brainstem segment, relays sensory and motor signals but is far smaller. The medulla oblongata, also brainstem, regulates vital functions like breathing but is compact. The cerebellum, below the cerebrum, coordinates movement and balance, yet its volume is less than the cerebrum's. Neuroanatomy studies quantify the cerebrum's dominance around 1,300-1,400 grams in adults dwarfing other regions, underscoring its evolutionary expansion for intelligence and adaptability, distinct from smaller, specialized structures.

Question 5

An adult experienced a myocardial infarction six months ago. At a follow-up visit, this adult says, 'I haven't had much interest in sex since my heart attack. I finished my rehabilitation program, but having sex strains my heart. I don't know if my heart is strong enough.' Which nursing diagnosis applies?

  1. A. Deficient knowledge related to faulty perception of health status
  2. B. Disturbed self-concept related to required lifestyle changes
  3. C. Disturbed body image related to treatment side effects
  4. D. Sexual dysfunction related to self-esteem disturbance
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Deficient knowledge related to faulty perception of health status

The correct answer is A: Deficient knowledge related to faulty perception of health status. The patient's statement indicates a lack of understanding about their health status and the impact of their myocardial infarction on their sexual activity. The patient is attributing their decreased interest in sex to a fear of straining their heart, indicating a faulty perception of their health status. This nursing diagnosis addresses the patient's need for education and clarification about their condition to alleviate their concerns and improve their confidence in engaging in sexual activity safely. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's lack of knowledge and faulty perception about their health status. Disturbed self-concept (B) relates more to how the patient perceives themselves due to lifestyle changes, while disturbed body image (C) pertains to physical appearance changes. Sexual dysfunction (D) is related to difficulties in sexual function, which is not the primary issue in this scenario.

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Question 6

A woman is sitting in a corner of the clinical waiting room, crying audibly. The nurse asks, “What’s wrong? Can I help?” The woman responds, “They just told me I have a positive mammogram and I need to see my doctor for follow-up tests. I know I’m going to die of cancer. How can I tell my family?” Which of the following information does the nurse need to know in order to help the woman cope with this finding?

  1. A. The negative predictive value of mammography
  2. B. The positive predictive value of mammography
  3. C. The reliability of mammography
  4. D. The validity of mammography
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 7

Youareorientinganewnursinggraduatetoyourmedicalunit.Thenewnursehasbeenassistingan N elderlywoman,whoisGreek,tofillouthermenuforthenextday.Towhatresourceshouldyourefer yourcolleaguetoobtainappropriatedietaryrecommendationsforthispatient?

  1. A. The U.S. Department of Agricultures MyPlate
  2. B. Evidence-based resources on nutritional assessment
  3. C. Culturally sensitive materials, such as the Mediterranean Pyramid
  4. D. A Greek cookbook that contains academic references Test Bank - Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 15e 96
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Question 8

The nurse understands that if a client continues to be dependent on heroin throughout her pregnancy, her baby will be at high risk for:

  1. A. Mental retardation.
  2. B. Heroin dependence.
  3. C. Addiction in adulthood.
  4. D. Psychological disturbances.
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Question 9

A 45-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with a complaint of headache, blurred vision, and nausea. Her blood pressure is 200/120 mm Hg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Primary hypertension
  2. B. Hypertensive crisis
  3. C. Migraine
  4. D. Cluster headache
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Question 10

A child has been admitted to the burn unit after pulling a pan of hot water off the stove. Given the fact that there is primarily second- and third-degree burns, the health care worker should prioritize care to focus on which of the following? Select all that apply.

  1. A. Focus on replacing fluids that have been lost from the vascular, interstitial, and cellular compartments.
  2. B. Assess for indications that the child's airway has been compromised by assessing breath sounds and voice quality.
  3. C. Maintain sterile field when doing dressing changes and debridement.
  4. D. Withhold foods/nutrition since the GI tract may have slowed down in response to stress.
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Question 11

The American Nurses Association definition of health emphasized on two factors which are

  1. A. Health and Wealth
  2. B. Behaviour and development
  3. C. Environment and Health status
  4. D. Economics and Environment
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Question 12

A group of nursing students has attended a presentation about the National Student Nurses' Association (NSNA). Which statement by the group indicates that they have understood the information presented?

  1. A. The NSNA contributes to the improvement of public health
  2. B. The organization provides programs of current professional interest
  3. C. It is run by a group of registered nurses
  4. D. It is funded by the national government
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Question 13

A school nurse is teaching a 14-year-old girl of normal weight some of the key factors necessary to maintain good nutrition in this stage of her growth and development. What interventions should the t nurse most likely prioritize? r A

  1. A. Decreasing her calorie intake and encouraging her to maintain her weight to avoid obesity
  2. B. Increasing her BMI, taking a multivitamin, and discussing body image s
  3. C. Increasing calcium intake, eating a balanced diet, and discussing eating disorders e
  4. D. Obtaining a food diary along with providing close monitoring for anorexia t
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Question 14

Which of the following is the major goal of ambulatory care facilities?

  1. A. to save money by not paying hospital rates
  2. B. to provide care to patients capable of self-care at home
  3. C. to perform major surgery in a community setting
  4. D. to perform tests prior to being admitted to the hospital
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Question 15

Which conflict style aligns with shared governance in nursing?

  1. A. Forcing
  2. B. Collaborating
  3. C. Avoiding
  4. D. Accommodating
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About these LPN exams fundamentals questions

LPN exams fundamentals practice questions, set 9 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the LPN exams exam guide.

The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.