NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 9
NCLEX-PN · health promotion
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questionsset 9
You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What is the threshold of dextrose concentrations that can safely be administered through a peripheral IV?
A. Dextrose concentrations below 20% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 20% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
B. Dextrose concentrations below 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
C. Dextrose concentrations below 10% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
D. Dextrose concentrations above 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations below 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Dextrose concentrations below 10% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
Dextrose concentrations below 10% are considered safe for administration through a peripheral IV, as concentrations above this threshold can lead to phlebitis, causing inflammation of the vein. Concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV to prevent vein irritation. Choice A is incorrect because concentrations above 20% are too high for a peripheral IV. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose concentrations below 5% are too low to be effective. Choice D is incorrect because the statement is reversed, suggesting that concentrations above 5% are safe, which is not true.
Question 2
A nurse is telling a pregnant client about the signs that must be reported to the health care provider. The nurse tells the client that the health care provider should be contacted if which occurs?
A. Puffiness of the face
B. Breast tenderness
C. Morning sickness
D. Urinary frequency
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Puffiness of the face
During pregnancy, it is important to be aware of danger signs that warrant contacting the healthcare provider. Puffiness of the face, especially around the eyes, can indicate a serious condition like preeclampsia. Other danger signs include vaginal bleeding, rupture of membranes, severe abdominal pain, visual disturbances, persistent vomiting, and changes in fetal movements. Morning sickness, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency are common symptoms of pregnancy and are not typically concerning unless they become severe or persistent, and do not usually require immediate medical attention.
Question 3
The client has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 125 mL/min
C. 125 mL/hr
D. 80 mL/min
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — 125 mL/hr
To determine the correct infusion rate, divide the total volume of fluids (1,000 mL) by the total infusion time (8 hours), resulting in a rate of 125 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the appropriate administration of fluids over the specified time period. Choice A (100 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate based on the given information. Choice B (125 mL/min) is inaccurate because the question specifies the rate in hours, not minutes. Choice D (80 mL/min) is incorrect as it provides the rate in minutes rather than hours, which is the required unit for this scenario.
Question 4
A client complains that her skin is redder than normal. The nurse notes the client's skin, documents hyperemia, and explains to the client that this condition is caused by which factor?
A. Constriction of the underlying blood vessels
B. An increased amount of bilirubin in the blood
C. Increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues
D. Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries
Hyperemia is an excess of blood in a part of the body. The skin over a hyperemic area usually becomes reddened or warm. The condition is caused by increased blood flow, local relaxation of arterioles, or obstruction of the outflow of blood from an area. Choice A is incorrect because constriction of blood vessels would lead to decreased blood flow, not excess blood. Choice B is incorrect as an increased amount of bilirubin in the blood is related to jaundice, not hyperemia. Choice C is incorrect because increased perfusion of the surrounding tissues would cause redness, not hyperemia.
Question 5
A nurse is determining the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client using Nagele's rule and notes documentation that the date of the client's last menstrual period was August 30, 2013. The nurse determines the estimated date of delivery to be which date?
A. 30-May-14
B. 6-Jun-14
C. 6-Jul-14
D. 6-May-14
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — 6-Jun-14
Nagele's rule is a method used to estimate the date of delivery for pregnant clients. The rule involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the date of the first day of the last normal menstrual period, then adjusting the year. Subtracting 3 months from August 30, 2013, brings the date to May 30, 2013; adding 7 days results in June 6, 2013. Finally, after correcting the year, the estimated date of delivery is June 6, 2014. Therefore, the correct answer is June 6, 2014. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the accurate calculation based on Nagele's rule.
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Question 6
The school nurse is conducting health screenings on schoolchildren. During the screening, she identifies a child with the behavioral characteristics of attention deficit disorder. Which of the following behaviors is consistent with this disorder?
A. slow speech development
B. overreaction to stimuli from the surroundings
C. inability to carry on a conversation
D. concrete thinking
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'overreaction to stimuli from the surroundings.' Children with attention deficit disorder often exhibit hypersensitivity to stimuli, leading to overreactions. Slow speech development is not a hallmark of attention deficit disorder; it is more associated with other learning disabilities. While children with this disorder may have difficulty focusing, they can usually carry on a conversation. Concrete thinking is not a common characteristic of attention deficit disorder, as individuals with this disorder may struggle with abstract thinking and impulsivity.
Which of the following are included in the Rights of Medication Administration? Select all that apply.
A. Right dose, right time, right explanation, right client, right route
B. Right dose, right time, right client, right route
C. Right dose, right time, right client
D. Right time, right explanation, right client
Correct answer:
The Rights of Medication Administration include the right client, right drug, right dose, right route, and right time. An additional right that is sometimes included is the right documentation. The correct answer includes the essential rights that must be ensured during medication administration. Choice A is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not part of the traditional Rights of Medication Administration. Choice B is incorrect as 'right explanation' is not included, and choice C is missing the right route. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks the right dose and right route.
A nurse assisting with data collection plans to assess tactile (vocal) fremitus. The nurse performs this by using which technique?
A. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion
B. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx
C. Auscultating the breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields
D. Palpating the thorax, comparing vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine'
Correct answer:
To assess tactile (vocal) fremitus, the nurse palpates the thorax and compares vibrations from side to side as the client repeats the word 'ninety-nine.' This technique helps in evaluating the intensity and symmetry of vibrations felt. Palpating for symmetric chest expansion involves assessing the expansion of the chest during breathing by placing hands on the anterolateral wall. Auscultating the breath sounds over the trachea and larynx is done to assess bronchial breath sounds, while auscultating over the peripheral lung fields is used to assess vesicular breath sounds.
A nurse is preparing to measure a client's calf circumference. The nurse performs this procedure by performing which action?
A. Placing a tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg
B. Measuring 2 inches above the knee and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
C. Measuring 2 inches above the ankle and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
D. Measuring 2 inches below the patella and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
Correct answer:
To measure a client's calf circumference accurately, a nurse should place a non-stretchable tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg. It is crucial to ensure that the tape measure is positioned at the same number of centimeters down from a specific landmark, such as the patella, on both legs for consistency. Placing the tape measure 2 inches above the knee (Option B), 2 inches above the ankle (Option C), or 2 inches below the patella (Option D) would not provide an accurate measurement of the calf circumference. Therefore, these options are incorrect choices.
An LPN is taking care of an elderly client who experiences the effects of Sundowner's Syndrome almost every evening. Which of these interventions implemented by the nurse would be the most helpful?
A. Place a nightlight in the client's room.
B. Administer the PRN sedative prescribed by the attending physician.
C. Remind the client that the things and people they are seeing are not real and that they are safe.
D. Turn on the TV or radio to a station the client enjoys.
Correct answer:
A nightlight will help reorient the client to his or her surroundings in the evening and nighttime hours. It is best not to challenge the reality of a client experiencing Sundowner's Syndrome, and sedatives may make the effects of the syndrome worse. Every effort should be made to keep the client's room calm, quiet, and peaceful, so noise should be kept to a minimum. Reminding the client that what they are experiencing is not real may cause distress and confusion, while turning on the TV or radio may add unnecessary stimulation instead of promoting a soothing environment.
Which of the following vaccines is not part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children?
A. DTaP
B. MMR
C. Hib
D. hepatitis A
Correct answer:
The correct answer is hepatitis A. DTaP, MMR, and Hib are all part of the regular schedule of immunizations for children to protect them against diseases like diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, measles, mumps, rubella, and Haemophilus influenzae type b. Hepatitis A vaccine is not included in the routine childhood immunization schedule but may be recommended in certain situations or regions where the disease is more prevalent. Hepatitis A is generally considered an optional vaccine for children but can be administered based on specific risk factors or regional guidelines.
The LPN is taking care of a 176-pound client who has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. The primary healthcare provider has written an order for Lantus® (insulin glargine injection) 100 units/mL, using weight-based dosing of 0.2 units/kg per day. The LPN should prepare ____ units for administration.
A. 12
B. 35
C. 16
D. 9
Correct answer:
To calculate the correct dosage, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms. As 1 kg = 2.2 pounds, 176 pounds ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg. The client should receive 0.2 units for every kilogram, which equals 16 units. Therefore, the total amount to prepare is 16 units x 100 units/mL = 1600 units. Considering the medication concentration of 100 units/mL, 1600 units ÷ 100 units/mL = 16 mL. However, since the question asks for the number of units, the final answer is 16 units x 2 injections = 32 units. Therefore, the LPN should prepare 32 units for administration.
A nurse is caring for a pregnant client in the labor unit who suddenly experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes. On inspecting the amniotic fluid, the nurse notes that it is clear, with creamy white flecks. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take based on this finding?
A. Check the client's temperature.
B. Report the findings to the nurse-midwife.
C. Obtain a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis.
D. Document the findings.
Correct answer:
Amniotic fluid should be clear and may include bits of vernix, the creamy white fetal skin lubricant. Therefore, the nurse would most appropriately document the findings. Checking the client's temperature, reporting the findings to the nurse-midwife, and obtaining a sample of the amniotic fluid for laboratory analysis are not necessary in this situation. Cloudy, yellow, or foul-smelling amniotic fluid suggests infection, while green fluid indicates that the fetus passed meconium before birth. If abnormalities are noted, the nurse should notify the nurse-midwife.
When a nurse-midwife, performing a vaginal examination of a client who suspects that she is pregnant, documents the presence of the Chadwick sign, what does this indicate?
A. That the cervix appears violet
B. That cervical softening is present
C. A positive sign of pregnancy
D. A thinning of the cervix
Correct answer:
The correct interpretation of the Chadwick sign is that the cervix appears violet in color. This sign is a probable sign of pregnancy, characterized by the violet coloration of the cervix due to increased vascularity of the pelvic organs. It is not a definitive positive sign of pregnancy but rather a probable one. Choices B and D are incorrect as cervical softening is known as the Goodell sign, and thinning of the cervix is referred to as the Hegar sign. These signs are also probable signs of pregnancy, but they do not specifically indicate the Chadwick sign.
Which of these medications is least likely to cause tinnitus?
A. Aspirin
B. Lasix
C. Gentamicin
D. Fluoxetine
Correct answer:
The correct answer is Fluoxetine. Among the options provided, Fluoxetine is the medication least likely to cause tinnitus. Gentamicin, Lasix, and Aspirin are known ototoxic medications that have a potential side effect of causing tinnitus, a ringing in the ear. Gentamicin is an antibiotic, Lasix is a diuretic, and Aspirin is a common pain reliever that can lead to tinnitus. In contrast, Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) primarily used as an antidepressant, and it has a lower risk of causing tinnitus compared to the other options.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 9 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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