You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?
A. Health promotion
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Primary prevention
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Secondary prevention
The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke.
Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia.
Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them.
Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.
Question 2
A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?
A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Checking the client's uterine fundus
During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 3
When working with multicultural populations, the nurse should consider all of the following when planning care for a client with an altered sexuality pattern except:
A. some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality.
B. some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity.
C. some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness.
D. some Native-American women believe monthly menstruation maintains physical well-being and harmony.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality.
When working with multicultural populations, it is essential to understand cultural variations in beliefs and practices related to sexuality. While it is true that some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity and that some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness, the statement 'some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality' is incorrect. In reality, many cultures, including Hispanic and Native-American cultures, are sometimes hesitant to discuss sexuality. For example, some Navajos, Hispanics, and Orthodox Jews may consider the postpartum period as impure, leading to seclusion of women until the end of bleeding, marked by a ritual bath. Additionally, many Native-American women believe in the importance of monthly menstruation for physical well-being and harmony. Therefore, the statement about Hispanic and Native-American cultures being very open about discussing sexuality is not accurate in the context of working with multicultural populations.
Question 4
A nurse is reading the report from the registered nurse for an initial home visit to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client was recently discharged from the hospital. Which type of database does the nurse read that contains this information from the client?
A. Episodic
B. Follow-up
C. Emergency
D. Complete
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Complete
The correct answer is 'Complete.' A complete database includes a full health history and physical examination, providing a comprehensive overview of the client's current and past health status. This type of database establishes a baseline for future assessments, making it essential for the nurse's initial home visit to understand the client's health needs thoroughly post-hospital discharge. It is typically gathered in primary care settings like clinics, private practices, college health services, women's health care agencies, visiting nurse agencies, or community health agencies. An episodic database focuses on a specific short-term issue or body system, which is not comprehensive enough for the initial home visit after hospital discharge. A follow-up database is used to monitor a known problem at regular intervals, not suitable for an initial assessment. An emergency database is swiftly collected during urgent situations, often while lifesaving measures are being carried out, and is not relevant for a post-hospital discharge home visit.
Question 5
A pregnant client is scheduled to undergo a transabdominal ultrasound, and the nurse provides information to the client about the procedure. The nurse provides which information?
A. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes.
B. She may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed.
C. A probe coated with gel will be inserted into the vagina.
D. She will be positioned on her back, with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — She may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed.
The correct answer is that the client may need to drink fluids before the test and may not void until the test has been completed. For a transabdominal ultrasound, the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side to prevent supine hypotension. A wedge or rolled blanket is placed under one hip to help her maintain this position comfortably. If a full bladder is necessary, the woman is instructed to drink several glasses of clear fluid 1 hour before the test and told that she should not void until the test has been completed. Warm mineral oil or transmission gel is spread over her abdomen, and the sonographer slowly moves a transducer over the abdomen to obtain a picture. The procedure typically takes 10 to 30 minutes, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because a probe is not inserted into the vagina for a transabdominal ultrasound. Choice D is incorrect because the woman is positioned on her back with her head elevated and turned slightly to one side, not specifically on her back.
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Question 6
A nurse assisting with data collection of the peripheral vascular system performs the Allen test. The nurse understands that this test is used to determine the patency of which blood vessel(s)?
A. Capillaries
B. Pedal pulses
C. Femoral arteries
D. Radial and ulnar arteries
Correct answer:
The nurse performs the Allen test to determine the patency of the radial and ulnar arteries. During the test, the nurse applies pressure over the client's ulnar and radial arteries simultaneously. The client is then asked to open and close the hand repeatedly, causing the hand to blanch. Subsequently, the nurse releases pressure from the ulnar artery while compressing the radial artery and checks the color of the extremity distal to the pressure point. If pinkness fails to return within 6 seconds, it indicates that the ulnar artery is insufficient, suggesting that the radial artery should not be used for obtaining a blood specimen. Choice A (Capillaries) is incorrect as the Allen test assesses the patency of larger arteries, not capillaries. Choice B (Pedal pulses) is incorrect as the Allen test specifically evaluates the radial and ulnar arteries, not the pedal pulses in the foot. Choice C (Femoral arteries) is incorrect as the Allen test focuses on the radial and ulnar arteries in the hand, not the femoral arteries in the leg.
A clinic nurse about to meet a new client plans to gather subjective data regarding the client's health history. Which action does the nurse take to help ensure the success of the interview?
A. Ensuring that the room is private
B. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them
C. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet between the nurse and client
D. Adjusting the room lighting to ensure it is comfortable and conducive for the client
Correct answer:
The physical environment of an interview room should provide optimal conditions to encourage a smooth interview and make the client feel comfortable. The nurse ensures that privacy is maintained to avoid interruptions during the interview. This helps create a safe space for the client to share sensitive information. Having the client sit across from the nurse without a desk or table between them is also important to promote open communication and build rapport. Maintaining a distance of 4 to 5 feet from the client respects their personal space and helps prevent the client from feeling overwhelmed. While adjusting the room lighting is beneficial for creating a comfortable atmosphere, ensuring privacy is crucial for establishing trust and confidentiality. Therefore, ensuring that the room is private is crucial for the success of the interview, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the importance of privacy in creating a conducive environment for the interview.
A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?
A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
C. Cleansing breaths
D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction
Correct answer:
If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.
The LPN is caring for a client newly diagnosed with HIV. Which statement made by the client regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART) would require correction from the nurse?
A. "If I start ART and use condoms, I'm less likely to transmit HIV to my partner."?
B. "I can still use ART even though I am Hepatitis C positive."?
C. "I will need to be on ART indefinitely."?
D. "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is the statement, "I know I will need to come back for blood draws so that I can begin ART when my CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3."? This statement would require correction from the nurse because initiating ART when the CD4 count is over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not supported by guidelines. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends making treatment a priority for those with a CD4 count of ?350 cells/mm3, as early intervention can help delay disease progression. Therefore, waiting for a CD4 count of over 1,000 cells/mm3 is not in line with current recommendations.
Choice A is correct, as studies have shown that using condoms along with ART can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission to sexual partners. Choice B is also correct because being Hepatitis C positive does not contraindicate the use of ART. Choice C is correct as well, as ART is typically needed indefinitely to maintain viral suppression and manage HIV. Therefore, the only statement that would require correction is Choice D.
In a community pediatric health clinic, which developmental task should you apply into your practice?
A. You should apply the principles of initiative when caring for preschool children.
B. You should apply the principles of sensorimotor thought when caring for preschool children.
C. You should apply the principles of intimacy when caring for the adolescent.
D. You should apply the principles of concrete operations when caring for the adolescent.
Correct answer:
When working in a community pediatric health clinic, applying the principles of initiative is crucial when caring for preschool children. According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory, the developmental task for preschool children is initiative. Preschool children are in the stage where they are eager to initiate activities and carry out tasks. This stage is characterized by a balance between initiative and guilt. By encouraging children to explore and take the initiative in a supportive environment, healthcare providers can foster their sense of independence and creativity.
The other choices are incorrect because:
- Sensorimotor thought is a term associated with Jean Piaget's cognitive development theory, not Erikson's psychosocial theory.
- Intimacy is a developmental task associated with young adults, not adolescents, in Erikson's theory.
- Concrete operations is a term linked to Piaget's theory of cognitive development and is not a developmental task according to Erikson's psychosocial theory.
A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts
Correct answer:
The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.
What is the most appropriate initial action for a newborn infant with low blood glucose?
A. Ask the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeat the test
B. Contact the healthcare provider
C. Contact the registered nurse
D. Document the results in the newborn's medical record
Correct answer:
The blood glucose level for a newborn infant should remain greater than 40 mg/dL to prevent permanent brain damage. When dealing with low blood glucose in a newborn, the most appropriate initial action is to contact the registered nurse. The nurse will obtain prescriptions regarding feeding the infant with low blood glucose and follow agency policies on feeding infants in such conditions. It is common practice to feed the infant if the glucose level is 40 mg/dL or less. Asking the registered nurse to draw another blood sample in 2 hours and repeating the test is not the most appropriate immediate action, as timely intervention is crucial in this situation. Contacting the healthcare provider may cause unnecessary delays since the registered nurse is usually the first point of contact for immediate actions in this scenario. Documenting the results in the newborn's medical record is essential, but it is not the initial step in managing low blood glucose in a newborn.
When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?
A. Ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap.
B. Listen to the right lung first, then the left lung, moving from top to bottom systematically.
C. Ask the client to take deep breaths through the mouth.
D. Use the diaphragm of the stethoscope, holding it firmly against the client's chest.
Correct answer:
When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.
The nurse is caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption. The care plan for the client should include which of the following priority strategies?
A. Make a referral for grief counseling.
B. Allow the woman to see her baby initially and respect her wishes for further visits.
C. Provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings.
D. Inform the woman she has the right to change her mind about relinquishment.
Correct answer:
When caring for a postpartum woman who has relinquished her baby for adoption, it is crucial for the nurse to provide opportunities for the woman to express her feelings. Most women who make this decision have done so with love and pain, and it is essential to allow them to verbalize their emotions, which may include grief, loneliness, and guilt. Referring the woman for grief counseling may be necessary if she lacks a support system or requests help to navigate her grief. Allowing the woman to see her baby is important, and the nurse should respect her wishes regarding visitation as it can aid in the grief process. While the woman does have the right to change her mind about relinquishment until final legal arrangements are made, suggesting this option may inadvertently influence her decision and should be approached cautiously. Therefore, providing emotional support and opportunities for expression are the priority strategies in this situation.
A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?
A. Near vision
B. Color vision
C. Distant vision
D. Peripheral vision
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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