NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 5
NCLEX-PN · health promotion
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questionsset 5
You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian?
A. vitamin C
B. vitamin B12
C. vitamin E
D. magnesium
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — vitamin B12
Vitamin B12 is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian. While all mentioned vitamins are essential for overall health, vitamin B12 is particularly important for vegetarians as it is mainly found in animal products. A strict vegetarian diet may lack sufficient vitamin B12 intake, leading to potential health issues like anemia and neurological problems. Vitamin C deficiency is more commonly associated with scurvy, which is preventable with a diet rich in fruits and vegetables. Vitamin E deficiency is rare and usually only seen in specific medical conditions. Magnesium deficiency is not typically a primary concern for strict vegetarians as magnesium can be obtained from a variety of plant-based sources.
Question 2
A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:
A. Gravida 2, para 6
B. Gravida 6, para 2
C. Gravida 3, para 6
D. Gravida 2, para 2
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Gravida 6, para 2
The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.
Question 3
A healthcare provider is preparing to perform a Rinne test on a client who complains of hearing loss. In which area does the healthcare provider first place an activated tuning fork?
A. On the client's teeth
B. On the client's forehead
C. On the client's mastoid bone
D. On the midline of the client's skull
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — On the client's mastoid bone
In the Rinne test, the base of an activated tuning fork is held first against the mastoid bone, behind the ear, and then in front of the ear canal (0.5 to 2 inches). When the client no longer perceives the sound behind the ear, the fork is moved in front of the ear canal until the client indicates that the sound can no longer be heard. The client reports whether the sound from the tuning fork is louder behind the ear (on the mastoid bone) or in front of the ear canal. Placing the tuning fork on the teeth (Choice A), forehead (Choice B), or the midline of the skull (Choice D) is not part of the Rinne test procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is to first place the activated tuning fork on the client's mastoid bone.
Question 4
To improve overall health, the nurse should place the highest priority on assisting a client to make lifestyle changes for which of the following habits?
A. drinking a six-pack of beer each day
B. eating an occasional chocolate bar
C. exercising twice a week
D. using relaxation exercises to deal with stress
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — drinking a six-pack of beer each day
To improve overall health, the nurse should prioritize assisting the client in making lifestyle changes that have the most significant impact on health. Drinking a six-pack of beer each day can have serious negative effects on health, including liver damage, increased risk of chronic diseases, and addiction. By addressing this habit first, the nurse can make a substantial positive difference in the client's health. Eating an occasional chocolate bar, exercising twice a week, and using relaxation exercises to deal with stress are beneficial habits, but they are not as detrimental to health as excessive alcohol consumption. Therefore, they are not the highest priority for immediate lifestyle changes to improve health.
Question 5
Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the woman's uterine fundus. At what location does the nurse expect to be able to palpate the fundus?
A. At the level of the umbilicus
B. Two centimeters above the umbilicus
C. Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
D. In the pelvic cavity
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
The correct answer is midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. Immediately after delivery, the uterus is about the size of a large grapefruit or softball. The fundus can be palpated at this location but then rises to a level just above the umbilicus before sinking to the level of the umbilicus, where it remains for about 24 hours. After 24 hours, the fundus starts descending gradually. By the 10th to 14th day, the fundus is in the pelvic cavity and cannot be palpated abdominally. Choices A and B are incorrect as the fundus is not initially at the level of the umbilicus or 2 centimeters above it. Choice D is also incorrect as the fundus does not remain in the pelvic cavity immediately after delivery.
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Question 6
You are caring for a 78-year-old woman who is wondering why she was diagnosed with glaucoma. Although she has several risk factors, which of these is not one of them?
A. age
B. blood pressure reading of 143/89
C. Mexican-American heritage
D. 20/80 vision
Correct answer:
Age over 60 and Mexican-American heritage are recognized as risk factors for glaucoma. Elevated blood pressure is also a risk factor due to its potential to cause optic nerve damage. While 20/80 vision indicates poor eyesight, it is not a direct causal factor for glaucoma. Glaucoma is mainly associated with factors like age, ethnicity, and certain medical conditions, rather than a specific visual acuity measurement. Therefore, 20/80 vision is not a risk factor for glaucoma, making it the correct answer. The other choices, such as age, Mexican-American heritage, and elevated blood pressure, are established risk factors for developing glaucoma, as they are associated with an increased likelihood of the condition.
When a 16-year-old girl visits the women's health clinic to obtain information about birth control because she is sexually active and wants to avoid pregnancy, what should the nurse do first when interviewing the client?
A. Assess the client's knowledge of available birth control methods.
B. Inform the client that birth control methods can be discussed without the client's boyfriend present.
C. Tell the client that for her age and lifestyle, birth control pills would be one of the methods of contraception.
D. Give the client written material about various birth control methods and ask her to read them and to call if she has any questions.
Correct answer:
When a client seeks information about birth control, it is essential for the nurse to first assess the client's existing knowledge on the subject. This enables the nurse to provide tailored information that complements what the client already knows, facilitating better understanding and decision-making. Providing written material is a helpful educational tool but should not be the first intervention. Offering specific advice on birth control methods based on age and lifestyle limits the client's autonomy and decision-making process. Mentioning the client's boyfriend as a requirement for discussing birth control is inappropriate and nontherapeutic, as the client should be able to seek information independently.
Which of the following would likely not impede learning?
A. a client who took Ambien® an hour ago
B. a bipolar client currently in a manic phase
C. a client who states they are not interested
D. a client with dysphagia
Correct answer:
The correct answer is a client who states they are not interested. While lack of interest can hinder learning motivation, it is not a physical or mental barrier that directly impacts the learning process. On the other hand, a client who took Ambien® an hour ago may experience drowsiness or impaired cognitive function, affecting their ability to learn. A bipolar client in a manic phase may exhibit symptoms such as racing thoughts, distractibility, and impulsivity, making it challenging for them to focus and engage in the learning process. A client with dysphagia may have difficulty swallowing, which can interfere with their ability to take oral medications or participate in activities that involve swallowing.
The client is being discharged with a prescription for an inhaled glucocorticoid for asthma. Which of the following statements indicates additional education is needed prior to discharge?
A. "I will hold my breath for 10 seconds after each puff."?
B. "I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water."?
C. "I will wait at least one minute between each puff."?
D. "I will take this medication daily even if I am not having symptoms."?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is, 'I will wait five minutes after taking this medication and then gargle water.' After using an inhaled glucocorticoid, it is essential to wait for 5 minutes and then gargle water to remove any residue from the mouth, which can reduce the risk of developing thrush, a fungal infection. Choice A is correct as holding the breath for 10 seconds after each puff helps the medication reach deep into the lungs. Choice C is also correct as waiting at least one minute between puffs ensures proper delivery of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because it is important to take the medication daily as prescribed to control asthma symptoms, even if the person is not experiencing any at that moment.
Intramuscular (IM) phytonadione (vitamin K) 0.5 mg is prescribed for a newborn. After the medication is prepared, in which anatomic site does the nurse administer it?
A. Rectus femoris muscle
B. Deltoid muscle
C. Gluteal muscle
D. Vastus lateralis muscle
Correct answer:
Vitamin K is administered to newborn infants to help prevent hemorrhagic disease. The best site for intramuscular injection in infants is the vastus lateralis muscle. This site is preferred due to its location away from the sciatic nerve, femoral artery, and vein, reducing the risk of complications. The rectus femoris muscle may be used if necessary; however, it is less favorable than the vastus lateralis due to its proximity to vital structures, making injections there more hazardous. The deltoid muscle is not typically used for IM injections in newborns. The gluteal muscles should be avoided until the child has been walking for at least a year, as they are poorly developed and close to the sciatic nerve.
A nurse palpates a client’s radial pulse, noting the rate, rhythm, and force, and concludes that the client’s pulse is normal. Which notation would the nurse make in the client’s record to document the force of the client’s pulse?
A. 4+
B. 3+
C. 2+
D. 1+
Correct answer:
When assessing a pulse, the nurse should note the rhythm, amplitude, and symmetry of pulses and should compare peripheral pulses on the two sides for rate, rhythm, and quality. A 4-point scale may be used to assess the force (amplitude) of the pulse: 4+ for a bounding pulse, 3+ for an increased pulse, 2+ for a normal pulse, and 1+ for a weak pulse. In this case, the nurse would grade the client’s pulse as 2+ based on the description of a normal pulse. Therefore, the correct notation for the force of the client’s pulse is '2+' as it indicates a normal pulse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent different levels of pulse force that do not align with the description given in the scenario.
A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client exhibits rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball when looking at the nurse. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
A. Ptosis
B. Nystagmus
C. Scleral icterus
D. Exophthalmos
Correct answer:
When a nurse observes rapid, involuntary oscillating movements of the eyeball in a client, this is described as nystagmus. Nystagmus appears as a fine oscillating movement, most notable around the iris. It is important to assess for nystagmus when evaluating ocular muscle weakness. Mild nystagmus at extreme lateral gaze is considered normal; nystagmus in any other position is not. Ptosis refers to a drooping of the eyelid, not rapid eye movements. Scleral icterus is the yellowing of the sclera up to the cornea, indicating jaundice, not related to eye movements. Exophthalmos is a noticeable protrusion of the eyeball, typically seen in hyperthyroidism, not associated with rapid oscillating eye movements.
Why is Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness significant?
A. it focuses on the health beliefs of a particular family.
B. it highlights the impact of culture on health explanations.
C. it discusses the significant role of popular and folk domains of influence.
D. it is based on an educational approach.
Correct answer:
Kleinman's Explanatory Model of Health and Illness is significant because it emphasizes the influence of popular and folk domains on health perceptions. Kleinman distinguishes between disease, representing the biomedical view, and illness, reflecting individual understanding. The model underscores that cultural factors shape the significance of popular and folk influences on health beliefs. Choice A is incorrect as the model focuses on broader cultural influences, not individual family beliefs. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the model's emphasis on various cultural aspects. Choice D is incorrect as the model's significance lies in its cultural framework rather than an educational base.
A pregnant client asks a nurse about the use of noninvasive acupressure as a complementary alternative therapy to relieve nausea. The nurse provides which instruction?
A. It is safe to try any type of complementary alternative therapy to relieve nausea
B. The physician or nurse-midwife needs to provide a prescription for acupressure devices
C. Devices that apply pressure alone are available over the counter
D. Complementary alternative therapies should not be used during pregnancy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Devices that apply pressure alone are available over the counter.' Acupressure over the Neiguan acupuncture point can be used as a complementary alternative therapy to relieve nausea during pregnancy. It can be performed with devices that apply pressure alone, which are available over the counter. Acupressure devices that apply electrical impulses over this point require a prescription. It is not safe to try any type of complementary alternative therapy during pregnancy, as some may be harmful to the mother and fetus. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client about the availability of over-the-counter pressure devices for acupressure, which are generally safe to use.
At a health screening clinic, a nurse is educating a young woman about breast self-examination (BSE). The nurse determines that the client demonstrates understanding when she makes which statement?
A. BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period.
B. BSE is performed after the menstrual period.
C. Monthly BSE is a recommended method for early detection of breast cancer.
D. Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Monthly BSE includes inspection before a mirror and palpation both in the shower and while lying down.' BSE should be performed monthly after the menstrual period, not every other month or on the day menstruation begins. Performing BSE on the seventh day of the menstrual cycle when the breasts are smallest and least congested is recommended. While BSE is a useful tool for early detection, it is not the only method. Regular physical examinations and mammograms are also important. The correct technique for BSE includes inspecting the breasts in front of a mirror, palpating in the shower for easier detection, and conducting palpation while lying down for thorough examination.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 5 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the NCLEX-PN exam guide.
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