NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 8
NCLEX-PN · health promotion
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questionsset 8
You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which of the following client groups should the nurse recognize as the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population?
A. single, adult men
B. single mothers with 2 or 3 children
C. runaway adolescents
D. single, adult women
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — single mothers with 2 or 3 children
Single mothers with two or three children are indeed the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population. These families, where the majority of children are under the age of five, make up more than one-third of the homeless population in the United States. While single, adult men have traditionally been the largest group in the homeless population, single mothers with children have been increasing in numbers. Runaway adolescents, although a significant group of homeless children, do not represent the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population. Single, adult women are not specified as the fastest-growing segment.
Question 2
A nurse sees documentation in the client's record indicating that the health care provider has noted the presence of adventitious breath sounds. The nurse knows that these types of sounds have which aspect?
A. Normally heard in the lungs
B. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx
C. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields
D. Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs
Adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that are not normally heard in the lungs. These sounds are added sounds superimposed on the breath sounds. They are caused by air colliding with secretions in the tracheobronchial passageways or when previously deflated airways pop open. Hollow sounds heard over the trachea and larynx are normal bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not adventitious. Rustling sounds heard over the peripheral lung fields are normal vesicular breath sounds, not adventitious. Therefore, the correct answer is that adventitious breath sounds are abnormal sounds that should not be heard in the lungs.
Question 3
A woman who delivered a healthy newborn 6 hours earlier complains of discomfort at the episiotomy site. Which action by the nurse is the most appropriate?
A. Administering an intravenous (IV) opioid analgesic
B. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath
C. Applying an ice pack to the perineum
D. Contacting the registered nurse
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Applying an ice pack to the perineum
Applying an ice pack to the perineum is the most appropriate action in this scenario. Ice causes vasoconstriction, providing relief by numbing the area and preventing edema. It is typically used within the first 12 to 24 hours after birth. Assisting the woman in taking a warm sitz bath is more suitable after 24 hours as warm water can be soothing. Administering an IV opioid analgesic is excessive; an anesthetic spray is more appropriate for surface discomfort. Contacting the registered nurse is unnecessary as applying an ice pack is within the nurse's scope and can effectively address the discomfort without escalation.
Question 4
Which of the following statements is correct about Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A. There are psychosocial interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
B. There are physical interventions that may be applicable to all of the levels.
C. Two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.
D. Four of the levels may require physical intervention, while two of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention.
The correct statement about Maslow's hierarchy of needs is that two of the levels may require physical intervention while four of the levels may require psychosocial intervention. Maslow's theory suggests that physiological and safety needs are more basic and may require physical interventions, while social, esteem, and self-actualization needs are more psychosocial. Choices A and B are incorrect as they wrongly suggest that all levels may require only one type of intervention. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately represents the balance of physical and psychosocial interventions in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
Question 5
When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse checks for which finding?
A. Redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane
B. An external auditory canal that is longer than normal
C. The presence of edema in the external auditory canal
D. A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — A yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal
When inspecting the ears for cerumen impaction, the nurse should look for a yellowish or brownish waxy material in the external auditory canal. Cerumen, also known as ear wax, is a secretion that can become impacted due to various reasons. It is produced by the vestigial apocrine sweat glands in the external ear canal. Cerumen may partially obscure the eardrum or totally occlude the ear canal. The other options, redness and swelling of the tympanic membrane, an external auditory canal that is longer than normal, and the presence of edema in the external auditory canal, are not indicative findings of cerumen impaction.
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Question 6
A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?
A. Notify the physician immediately
B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent
C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses
D. Document the finding
Correct answer:
The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.
A nurse assisting with data collection notes that the client's skin is very dry. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
A. Xerosis
B. Pruritus
C. Seborrhea
D. Actinic keratoses
Correct answer:
Dry skin is also called xerosis. In this condition, the epidermis lacks moisture or sebum and is often marked by a pattern of fine lines, scaling, and itching. Xerosis is the correct term for very dry skin. Pruritus is the symptom of itching, an uncomfortable sensation that prompts the urge to scratch the skin, but it does not specifically refer to dry skin. Seborrhea is a skin condition characterized by overproduction of sebum, leading to excessive oiliness or dry scales, not necessarily indicating very dry skin. Actinic keratoses are sun-related skin lesions that are premalignant and not associated with dry skin.
A healthcare provider is assisting with data collection on a client for the major risk factors associated with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which modifiable risk factor does the healthcare provider obtain data on from the client?
A. Age
B. Ethnicity
C. Hypertension
D. Genetic inheritance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Hypertension.' Risk factors for CAD are categorized as modifiable and unmodifiable. Unmodifiable risk factors include age, sex, ethnicity, genetic predisposition, and family history of heart disease. Modifiable risk factors include increased concentrations of serum lipids, hypertension, cigarette smoking, obesity, and level of physical activity. In this case, hypertension is a modifiable risk factor that the healthcare provider would obtain data on. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because age, ethnicity, and genetic inheritance are unmodifiable risk factors for CAD, not modifiable ones.
An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?
A. Loud music
B. Use of power tools
C. Occupational noise
D. Exposure to cigarette smoke
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.
During the examination of a client's throat, a nurse touches the posterior wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex. The nurse documents normal function of which cranial nerves?
A. Cranial nerves V and VI
B. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
C. Cranial nerves XII and VIII
D. Cranial nerves IX and X
Correct answer:
The correct answer is cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). When the nurse touches the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and elicits the gag reflex, it indicates normal function of these nerves. Cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VI (abducens nerve) are not directly responsible for the gag reflex. Cranial nerves XII (hypoglossal nerve) and VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve) are not directly involved in eliciting the gag reflex. Testing cranial nerve I involves smell function, and cranial nerve II is related to eye examinations, making them irrelevant in this scenario.
When assessing the carotid artery of a client with cardiovascular disease, what action should a nurse perform?
A. Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck
B. Palpating both arteries simultaneously to compare amplitude
C. Listening to the carotid artery, using the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits
D. Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths while the nurse listens to the carotid artery
Correct answer:
When assessing the carotid artery of a client with cardiovascular disease, the nurse should listen to the carotid artery using the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits. This is crucial in detecting abnormal sounds that may indicate underlying pathology. Palpating the carotid artery in the upper third of the neck can trigger a vagal response, leading to a decrease in heart rate, which is undesirable. Palpating both arteries simultaneously can disrupt blood flow to the brain. Instructing the client to take slow, deep breaths is unnecessary and not a standard practice during carotid artery assessment.
When teaching parents how their children learn sex role identification, the nurse should include which of the following statements?
A. Sex role identification begins in infancy.
B. Sex role identification begins in the preschool years.
C. Sex role identification begins during the school-age years.
D. Sex role identification begins during early adolescence.
Correct answer:
Sex role identification begins during infancy as infants can identify body parts by the end of the first year. Preschoolers often engage in masturbation and sex play. School-age children continue to develop awareness of their sexual identity, including behaviors like hugging and kissing. Early adolescence sees further development influenced by sexual maturation and experimentation with sex roles. Therefore, the correct statement is that sex role identification begins in infancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the timeline of the development of sex role identification in children.
A nurse reviewing the physical assessment findings in a client's health care record notes documentation that the Phalen test caused numbness and burning. Which disorder does the nurse, on the basis of this finding, conclude that the client has?
A. Scoliosis
B. Bone deformity
C. Heberden nodules
D. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct answer:
The Phalen test is specifically used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. In this test, the client is asked to hold their hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees, which can reproduce the numbness and burning sensation experienced by individuals with carpal tunnel syndrome. Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, not related to the Phalen test. Bone deformity is a general term that does not specifically relate to the symptoms described. Heberden nodules are bony swellings that occur in osteoarthritis and are not assessed through the Phalen test.
During a routine health screening, the nurse should talk to the parents of a 1-year-old child about which of the following?
A. the potential hazards of accidents
B. appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding
C. toilet training
D. how to prevent accidents in the house
Correct answer:
During a routine health screening for a 1-year-old child, discussing the potential hazards of accidents is crucial. Accidents are the primary source of injury in children and can be life-threatening. Addressing appropriate nutrition now that the child has been weaned from breastfeeding should have already been discussed. Toilet training is important but is typically addressed at a later age as one year is too early for this milestone. While preventing accidents in the house is important, focusing on the potential hazards of accidents in general is more comprehensive and critical for the child's safety.
A multigravida pregnant woman asks the nurse when she will start to feel fetal movements. Around which week of gestation does the nurse tell the mother that fetal movements are first noticed?
A. 16 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 12 weeks
Correct answer:
Fetal movements (quickening) are first noticed by multigravida pregnant women at 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and gradually increase in frequency and strength. This is when the mother typically begins to feel the baby's movements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fetal movements are not felt as early as 6, 8, or 12 weeks of gestation. At 6 weeks, the embryo's movements are not yet strong enough to be felt by the mother. By 8 weeks, the movements are still too subtle to be perceived. At 12 weeks, although fetal movements start, they are usually not strong enough to be felt by the mother.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 8 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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