NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 10
NCLEX-PN · health promotion
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questionsset 10
You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Which reported symptom(s) would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
A. Oily skin and hair
B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
D. Increased blood glucose level
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
Fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking the action of aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid that causes the retention of sodium and water. Excessive retention of sodium and water can lead to weight gain. Therefore, a sudden increase in weight, especially a significant amount like 6 pounds in one week, can indicate an overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not typically associated with excessive fludrocortisone replacement.
Question 2
A client who is experiencing infertility says to the nurse, 'I feel I will be incomplete as a man/woman if I cannot have a child.' Which of the following nursing diagnoses is likely to be appropriate for this client?
A. Risk for Self-Harm
B. Body Image Disturbance
C. Ineffective Role Performance
D. Powerlessness
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Body Image Disturbance
The correct answer is 'Body Image Disturbance.' The client's statement reflects concerns about self-identity and completeness related to infertility, indicating a disturbance in body image perception. 'Risk for Self-Harm' is not the best choice as there is no indication of immediate self-harm. 'Ineffective Role Performance' is less appropriate since the statement does not directly relate to a disruption in the parent's role. 'Powerlessness' could be considered if the client expressed feelings of powerlessness specifically related to the infertility issue.
Question 3
A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?
A. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint
B. Percussing at the location of the median nerve
C. Checking for repetitive movements in the joints
D. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Percussing at the location of the median nerve
The Tinel sign is elicited by percussing at the location of the median nerve at the wrist. In carpal tunnel syndrome, this test can produce burning and tingling along the nerve's distribution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint and checking for repetitive movements in the joints involve different assessments unrelated to the Tinel sign. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back is associated with the Phalen test, which is another evaluation for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question 4
Which of the following is an example of an extended care facility?
A. Home health agency
B. Suicide prevention center
C. State-owned psychiatric hospital
D. Nursing facility
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Nursing facility
An extended care facility typically provides long-term care for individuals who require continuous assistance with activities of daily living. A nursing facility fits this description as it offers skilled nursing care and assistance with daily activities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a home health agency provides care in the patient's home, a suicide prevention center focuses on mental health crisis intervention, and a state-owned psychiatric hospital offers mental health treatment, none of which are synonymous with extended care facilities.
Question 5
When preparing to assist the healthcare provider in examining a client's skin with the use of a Wood light, what action should the nurse perform?
A. Darken the room
B. Obtain informed consent from the client
C. Obtain a scalpel and a slide for diagnostic evaluation
D. Obtain medication to anesthetize the skin area before proceeding with the examination
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Darken the room
When using a Wood light during a skin examination, the room should be darkened to enhance the visibility of fluorescence. The Wood light emits long-wavelength ultraviolet light, highlighting certain skin conditions. Darkening the room aids in better visualization. Obtaining informed consent is a crucial aspect of healthcare but not directly related to using a Wood light. Obtaining a scalpel and a slide is unnecessary for a noninvasive Wood light examination. Anesthetizing the skin area is not required as the procedure is painless and noninvasive.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
When caring for an elderly client and providing education, which of the following would be the least appropriate for the nurse to do?
A. The nurse speaks loudly.
B. The nurse allows additional time after each instruction to allow the client to process.
C. The nurse provides supplemental written resources.
D. The nurse breaks up the education into multiple shorter sessions.
Correct answer:
Speaking loudly is inappropriate when caring for an elderly client. It is essential to assess the client for a hearing impairment and provide appropriate assistance if needed. Elderly clients may require more time to process information due to slower reaction times, benefit from shorter sessions as they fatigue easily, and can absorb supplemental written resources effectively. Therefore, speaking loudly may not be conducive to effective communication and may not cater to the specific needs of the elderly client, unlike the other options provided.
A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?
A. In the axillary area
B. At the level of the nipples
C. Two inches below the nipples
D. At the level of the umbilicus
Correct answer:
The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.
After reviewing the child's immunization record, which scheduled vaccine should the nurse prepare to administer next?
A. Hib
B. IPV
C. MMR
D. DTaP
Correct answer:
The correct answer is DTaP. DTaP is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age; between 15 and 18 months of age; and between 4 and 6 years of age. Since the child has only received three doses of this vaccine, the next dose of DTaP should be administered. The other options are incorrect because Hib is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 12 and 15 months; IPV is administered at 2, 4, and 6 months of age and between 4 and 6 years of age; MMR is administered between 12 and 15 months of age and again between 4 and 6 years of age.
A nurse assisting with data collection is preparing to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. The client tells the nurse that he ate lunch just 45 minutes ago. On the basis of this information, which finding does the nurse expect to note?
A. Gurgling sounds
B. Hypoactive sounds
C. Low-pitched sounds
D. An absence of sounds
Correct answer:
Bowel sounds are high-pitched, gurgling, cascading sounds that occur irregularly between five and 30 times a minute. In this scenario, since the client ate lunch just 45 minutes ago, the nurse would expect to note gurgling sounds as normal bowel activity. Hypoactive sounds (low-pitched) or an absence of sounds are usually associated with conditions such as abdominal surgery or inflammation of the peritoneum, not with recent food intake. Therefore, the correct answer is gurgling sounds, indicating normal bowel activity following a recent meal.
While assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, a nurse percusses the area, and the client complains of sharp pain. The nurse interprets this finding as most indicative of which disorder?
A. Liver enlargement
B. Ovarian infection
C. Spleen enlargement
D. Kidney inflammation
Correct answer:
When assessing for costovertebral angle tenderness, sharp pain on percussion of the area indicates inflammation of the kidney or paranephric area. The correct technique involves placing one hand over the 12th rib, at the costovertebral angle, and thumping that hand with the ulnar edge of the other fist. The client normally feels a thud and should not experience pain. Ovarian infection, liver enlargement, or spleen enlargement are not associated with the costovertebral angle tenderness. Therefore, the correct answer is kidney inflammation.
Diltiazem belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers, not NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, or Beta-Blockers. Calcium-channel blockers like Diltiazem are used to treat conditions such as hypertension by relaxing blood vessels and increasing the supply of blood and oxygen to the heart. Therefore, the correct classification for Diltiazem is a Calcium-Channel Blocker. NSAIDs, ACE Inhibitors, and Beta-Blockers belong to different classes of drugs with distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses, making them incorrect choices for Diltiazem.
A nurse monitoring a newborn infant notes that the infant's respirations are 40 breaths/min. On the basis of this finding, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Contacting the registered nurse
B. Documenting the findings
C. Wrapping an extra blanket around the infant
D. Placing the infant in an oxygen tent
Correct answer:
The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths/min, with an average of 40. Since the infant's respiratory rate falls within the normal range, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to document the findings. Contacting the registered nurse, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, or wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are unnecessary actions as the respiratory rate is normal. Documenting the findings is important to provide a record of the assessment and serve as a baseline for future comparisons if needed.
Which of the following actions should the LPN perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order? Select all that apply.
A. plug the patient to the ECG Monitor
B. Administer the medication over at least 5 minutes.
C. Monitor respirations during administration.
D. Monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration.
Correct answer:
The correct actions for the LPN to perform for a client with an active digoxin IV order are to monitor ECG rhythm throughout administration and monitor the client's pulse for 1 minute prior to administration. These actions are crucial as digoxin affects the heart's electrical activity, and it should not be administered if the client's pulse is less than 60 bpm. Monitoring respirations and blood pressure are not directly associated with digoxin administration. Administering IV medications is typically outside the LPN's scope of practice.
A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?
A. Pulling the pinna up and back
B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner
Correct answer:
In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.
The LPN is caring for a client taking Lipitor (Atorvastatin). Which of these statements would indicate that the client may need reinforced teaching?
A. "I take my Lipitor with a glass of milk after my breakfast."?
B. "I take my Lipitor and wait 30 minutes before taking my other medications."?
C. "I take my Lipitor 30 minutes after I eat something."?
D. "I take my Lipitor and my other morning medications with my grapefruit juice at breakfast."?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is, 'I take my Lipitor and my other morning medications with my grapefruit juice at breakfast.' This statement indicates a need for reinforced teaching because grapefruit juice should be avoided when taking Lipitor. Grapefruit juice blocks the enzymes needed to break down the drug, which leads to excessive amounts of the drug in the body. Choices A, B, and C show appropriate timing and administration of Lipitor, whereas choice D poses a potential risk due to the interaction between grapefruit juice and Lipitor.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 10 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the NCLEX-PN exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
