NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 4
NCLEX-PN · health promotion
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questionsset 4
You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse is preparing to test cranial nerve I. Which item does the nurse obtain to test this nerve?
A. Coffee
B. A tuning fork
C. A wisp of cotton
D. An ophthalmoscope
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — A wisp of cotton
To assess the function of cranial nerve I (olfactory nerve), the nurse uses a wisp of cotton to test the sense of smell in a client who reports loss of smell. The nurse assesses the patency of the client's nostrils by occluding one nostril at a time and asking the client to sniff. Next, with the client's eyes closed, the nurse occludes one nostril and presents a non-noxious aromatic substance such as coffee, toothpaste, orange, vanilla, soap, or peppermint. Choice A, 'Coffee,' is incorrect because it is used to present non-noxious aromatic substances to assess cranial nerve I. Choice B, 'A tuning fork,' is used to assess the function of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve). Choice D, 'An ophthalmoscope,' is used to assess the internal structures of the eye, not cranial nerve I.
Question 2
At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?
A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.
Question 3
A new mother who is breastfeeding her newborn calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and reports that her infant is passing seedy, mustard-yellow stools. The nurse provides the mother with which information?
A. To monitor the infant for infection and, if a fever develops, to contact the pediatrician
B. That the stools should be solid and pale yellow to light brown
C. That this is normal for breastfed infants
D. To decrease the number of feedings by two per day
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — That this is normal for breastfed infants
Breastfed infants pass very soft, seedy, mustard-yellow stools, which is considered normal. Formula-fed infants excrete stools that are more solid and pale yellow to light brown. It is essential for the mother to understand that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are expected in breastfed infants, indicating that there is no need for concern. Monitoring for infection as the first response without other symptoms can cause unnecessary anxiety. Decreasing the number of feedings without valid reasons can lead to inadequate nutrition for the newborn. Therefore, the correct advice for the nurse to provide in this scenario is that seedy, mustard-yellow stools are normal for breastfed infants, reassuring the mother and promoting proper understanding of newborn stool characteristics.
Question 4
The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?
A. Clozapine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Ondansetron
D. Haloperidol
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Haloperidol
The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.
Question 5
The nurse is observing a client self-administer two crushable medications through their G-tube. Which of the following would indicate a need for further instruction?
A. The client flushes the G-tube before administering the medications, in between the two medications, and after the medications.
B. The client states they will remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for 30 minutes following the administration of the medications.
C. The client mixes each medication separately in warm water.
D. The client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula.
The correct answer is that the client mixes their medications with their tube-feeding formula. Medications should not be mixed with tube-feeding formula or other medications as it may alter their effectiveness. The G-tube should be flushed before, between, and after the medications to prevent clogging and ensure proper administration. The client should remain in the Semi-Fowler's position for at least 30 minutes after medication administration to prevent reflux. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the proper post-administration positioning. Choices A and C are incorrect as flushing the G-tube before, between, and after medications, and mixing each medication separately in warm water are appropriate procedures that do not indicate a need for further instruction.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?
A. Venous insufficiency
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Sore muscles from overexertion
D. Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems
Correct answer:
Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.
Which of these is not a symptom of Serotonin Syndrome?
A. edema
B. fever
C. confusion
D. tremors
Correct answer:
Serotonin syndrome, caused by an excess of serotonin, typically presents with symptoms such as altered mental status (confusion), neuromuscular abnormalities (tremors), and autonomic dysfunction (fever). Edema, which refers to swelling caused by fluid retention in the body tissues, is not a common symptom associated with serotonin syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is 'edema.'
Choice A, 'edema,' is the correct answer as it is not typically seen in serotonin syndrome. Choice B, 'fever,' is a symptom of serotonin syndrome, as it can cause autonomic dysfunction. Choice C, 'confusion,' is a common symptom due to altered mental status in serotonin syndrome. Choice D, 'tremors,' is also a common symptom due to neuromuscular abnormalities in serotonin syndrome.
While assessing a client’s skin, the nurse notes the presence of several large red-blue and purple areas on the client’s body that do not blanch when pressure is applied. The nurse documents this finding using which term?
A. Psoriasis
B. Anasarca
C. Petechiae
D. Ecchymosis
Correct answer:
Ecchymosis refers to a large patch of capillary bleeding into the tissues, commonly known as a bruise. The color of such an area changes from red-blue or purple to green, yellow, and brown before the area disappears. Pressure on the area will not cause it to blanch. Psoriasis is characterized by scaly erythematous patches with silvery scales on top, usually found on specific areas like the scalp, elbows, knees, low back, and anogenital area. Anasarca is bilateral or generalized edema, indicating a central problem like congestive heart failure or kidney failure. Petechiae are tiny purple or red spots resulting from tiny hemorrhages within the dermal and subdermal areas. Therefore, in this case, the correct term to document the described finding is Ecchymosis.
Which of the following statements, if made by the parents of a newborn, does not indicate a need for further teaching about cord care?
A. "I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day."?
B. "I should put the baby's diaper on so that it covers the cord."?
C. "I should call the physician if the cord becomes dark."?
D. "I should wash my hands before and after I take care of the cord."?
Correct answer:
Explanation: Parents should be taught that putting alcohol or other antimicrobials on the cord is no longer recommended for cord care. This can interfere with the natural healing process and may increase the risk of irritation or infection. Washing hands before and after providing cord care is essential to prevent the transfer of pathogens. Placing the baby's diaper below the cord allows it to be exposed to air and promotes drying, reducing the risk of infection. It is normal for the cord to turn dark as it dries, so calling the physician only if the cord becomes red, swollen, or has discharge is appropriate. Therefore, the statement '"I should put alcohol on my baby's cord 3-4 times a day."?' indicates a need for further teaching about cord care.
All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:
A. high infant mortality rate
B. frequent use of Emergency Departments
C. consultation with folk healers
D. low incidence of dental problems
Correct answer:
Factors correlated with poverty often include a high infant mortality rate, frequent use of Emergency Departments, and consultation with folk healers, as these indicate limited access to healthcare. Dental problems are prevalent in poverty due to a lack of preventive care and access to treatments. High infant mortality is a significant issue linked with poverty as it reflects poor healthcare access. Families in poverty might resort to Emergency Departments for healthcare due to financial barriers. Consulting folk healers is common in communities with limited access to formal healthcare. However, a low incidence of dental problems is less likely in impoverished families due to the lack of preventive services and the presence of other health issues.
When a 25-year-old client complains of chest congestion and cough after previously presenting with cold symptoms, what data should the nurse collect?
A. Data related to follow-up care
B. A complete health database
C. Data related to the respiratory system
D. Data related to the treatment for the cold
Correct answer:
In this case, the nurse should collect data related to the respiratory system since the client is presenting with symptoms like chest congestion and cough, indicating a respiratory issue. Focusing on the respiratory system will help gather pertinent information to assess the current problem comprehensively. A complete health database involves a detailed health history and full physical examination, which is beyond the immediate scope of the presenting issue. Data related to follow-up care is premature as the primary focus should be on assessing the current respiratory symptoms. Data related to the treatment for the cold is not the priority at this stage, as understanding the underlying respiratory problem is crucial for appropriate intervention.
The LPN receives a call from a mother caring for her eight-month-old infant. The mother describes that the child has a low-grade fever and has teeth breaking through the gums. Which of the following measures would be inappropriate to recommend to the mother?
A. Allow the child to chew on a cooled teething ring.
B. Massage the child's gums gently.
C. Administer acetaminophen.
D. Administer aspirin.
Correct answer:
Administering aspirin would be inappropriate in this situation. Aspirin should not be recommended for children due to the increased risk of Reye's syndrome, a serious condition. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate measures for managing teething discomfort in infants. Allowing the child to chew on a cooled teething ring can help soothe the gums, massaging the child's gums gently can provide relief, and administering acetaminophen is a suitable option for pain relief in infants with teething discomfort. Aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infections due to the risk of Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal condition affecting the brain and liver. Therefore, recommending aspirin to the mother would not be appropriate in this case.
When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, where might they be best served?
A. Rehabilitation center.
B. Extended care facility.
C. Hospice.
D. Crisis intervention center.
Correct answer:
When a client and their family are facing the end stage of a terminal illness, they are best served by Hospice. Hospice offers a more humanized alternative care for dying clients compared to hospitals, focusing on comfort and quality of life in the final stages of life. It provides a specialized interdisciplinary team of health care professionals who work together to manage client care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a rehabilitation center focuses on physical therapy, an extended care facility provides long-term care for activities of daily living, and a crisis intervention center deals with immediate psychological or social crises, none of which cater to the specific needs of clients facing the end stage of a terminal illness.
During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?
A. Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of the client
B. Whispered by the nurse from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested
C. Spoken by the nurse from the client's side in a normal tone of voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
D. Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is standing in front of the client
Correct answer:
During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.
A nurse demonstrates the procedure for bathing a newborn to a new mother. The next day, the nurse watches as the mother bathes the infant. The nurse determines that the mother is performing the procedure correctly if the mother performs which action?
A. Uses a cotton-tipped swab to carefully clean inside the infant's nose
B. Uncovers only the body part being washed
C. Washes the diaper area first
D. Washes the infant's chest first
Correct answer:
When bathing a newborn, it is crucial to follow a specific sequence for thorough cleaning and safety. The correct sequence includes starting with the eyes and face, then moving to the external ear, areas behind the ears, neck, hands, arms, legs, and finally the diaper area. Keeping the infant warm is essential, so only the body part being washed should be uncovered. Using a cotton-tipped swab to clean inside the infant's nose is not recommended due to the risk of injury if the infant moves suddenly. Washing the diaper area first is incorrect as it should be done towards the end of the bath to prevent contamination. Washing the infant's chest first is also incorrect as it deviates from the recommended bathing sequence for a newborn.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 4 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the NCLEX-PN exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
