NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 2
NCLEX-PN · health promotion
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questionsset 2
You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When a client who is having trouble conceiving says to the nurse, 'I have started taking ginseng,' the best response by the nurse is:
A. "There is some evidence that ginseng may enhance in vitro sperm motility."?
B. "Some studies show that ginseng enhances in vitro sperm motility."?
C. "Ginseng is not proven to be effective for infertility; have you considered other options?"?
D. "It's probably not going to hurt you, but it's also probably not going to help. Let's look at some other alternatives."?
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — "Some studies show that ginseng enhances in vitro sperm motility."?
Some studies have shown that ginseng enhances in vitro sperm motility, making Choice B the correct response. It directly addresses the client's comments about taking ginseng and provides valuable information regarding its potential effect on sperm motility. Alternative therapies are often sought by couples struggling with infertility, and acknowledging the potential benefits of ginseng can empower the client. Choice A is incorrect as it slightly misrepresents the evidence by overgeneralizing its effectiveness. Choice C dismisses ginseng without acknowledging its potential benefits, potentially closing off a fruitful discussion with the client. Choice D, while neutral, misses the opportunity to validate the client's choice and explore further options collaboratively. It is crucial for nurses to respect clients' choices, provide accurate information, and guide them effectively in exploring different alternatives.
Question 2
A nurse is explaining a nonstress test to a pregnant client. The nurse explains that the results are nonreactive if which finding is noted on the electronic monitoring recording strip?
A. Two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at 15 beats/min above baseline and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline
B. Accelerations without fetal movement with fetal heart rate (FHR) increases of 15 beats/min for 15 seconds
C. Acceleration of the FHR by 25 to 30 beats/min for at least 15 seconds in response to fetal movement
D. Absence of accelerations after fetal movement
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Absence of accelerations after fetal movement
The correct answer is 'Absence of accelerations after fetal movement.' In a nonreactive (nonreassuring) stress test, the monitor recording would not show accelerations after fetal movement within a 40-minute period. This absence of accelerations indicates a nonreactive result. Choices A, B, and C describe different patterns of fetal heart rate accelerations that are not indicative of a nonreactive result in a nonstress test, making them incorrect. Choice A describes the characteristics of a reactive (reassuring) result, where there should be at least two fetal heart accelerations within a 20-minute period, peaking at least 15 beats/min above the baseline, and lasting 15 seconds from baseline to baseline. Choice B incorrectly states 'Accelerations without fetal movement,' which is contradictory. Choice C describes an acceleration response to fetal movement, which does not signify a nonreactive result.
Question 3
A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?
A. The client is legally blind.
B. The client has normal vision.
C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.
When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.
Question 4
A pregnant client tells the nurse that she has a 2-year-old child at home and expresses concern about how the toddler will adapt to a newborn infant being brought into the home. Which statement is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the client?
A. If your 2-year-old becomes angry or jealous, you should consider preparing the child for the new sibling rather than seeking psychological intervention.
B. Don't worry; every 2-year-old may need time to adjust to a newborn sibling.
C. Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.
D. A 2-year-old toddler focuses on exploring the environment, but it's important to prepare the child for the new sibling.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.
The correct response by the nurse is, 'Even though a 2-year-old may have little perception of time, any changes in sleeping arrangements for the newborn should be made several weeks before birth.' Toddlers are generally unaware of the changes during pregnancy and may not understand the impending arrival of a new sibling. It is essential to prepare the child gradually for the new baby's arrival by making any necessary changes in sleeping arrangements beforehand. Expecting a young child to immediately welcome a new sibling without prior preparation is unrealistic. Option A is incorrect as suggesting psychological intervention prematurely is not appropriate. Option B is incorrect as assuming all 2-year-olds would immediately welcome a newborn is unrealistic. Option D is incorrect as dismissing the concerns without addressing the need for preparation is not appropriate in this situation.
Question 5
When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?
A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field
When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.
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Question 6
A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?
A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands
Correct answer:
To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.
When a nurse asks a client to repeat the word 'ninety-nine' while listening through the stethoscope and is able to hear the word clearly, which assessment finding is being documented?
A. Normal egophony
B. Abnormal vesicular breath sounds
C. Abnormal bronchophony
D. Normal whispered pectoriloquy
Correct answer:
The nurse is documenting an abnormal bronchophony assessment finding. Bronchophony is a technique where the nurse asks the client to repeat a specific word, such as 'ninety-nine,' while listening through the stethoscope. Normally, the voice transmission is soft, muffled, and indistinct. However, if there is a pathologic condition increasing lung density, the nurse will hear the word clearly, indicating an abnormality. Vesicular breath sounds are normal sounds heard over peripheral lung fields and are not related to vocal resonance assessment. Egophony involves the client phonating a long 'ee-ee-ee-ee' sound, not repeating a specific word. Whispered pectoriloquy involves whispering a phrase like 'one-two-three,' not repeating a specific word. In these cases, normal findings are 'eeeeee' for egophony and a muffled, almost inaudible sound for whispered pectoriloquy.
A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?
A. You cannot prevent getting Group B Strep; you can only treat it.
B. You should have your partner wear a condom every time you have intercourse.
C. You should be extra vigilant about hand-washing, especially in the third trimester.
D. The Group B Strep vaccine is the only proven way to prevent the disease.
Correct answer:
The best response for the LPN to provide to a pregnant client concerned about preventing Group B Strep is that it cannot be prevented, only treated. Group B Strep is a normal flora found in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of women and is not a sexually transmitted disease. Testing for Group B Strep is done in each pregnancy, usually around 35-37 weeks. If a woman tests positive, antibiotics are administered during labor to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and the baby. Choice A is the correct answer as Group B Strep cannot be prevented but only treated. Choice B is incorrect; condom use does not prevent Group B Strep. Choice C is not the best response as hand-washing is important for general hygiene but does not specifically prevent Group B Strep. Choice D is incorrect as there is no vaccine available to prevent Group B Strep.
The nurse, assisting with data collection of the abdomen, inspects the client’s abdomen. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next?
A. Percussion
B. Auscultation
C. Light palpation
D. Deep palpation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is auscultation. The assessment techniques used for a physical examination are inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation. These techniques are normally performed in this order. However, in the abdominal examination, auscultation is performed after inspection and before palpation and percussion. This order is specific to the abdomen because palpation and percussion can increase peristalsis, leading to a false interpretation of bowel sounds. Therefore, auscultation is performed before palpation and percussion in abdominal assessments to ensure accurate bowel sound assessment. Percussion and palpation are performed after auscultation in abdominal assessments. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as auscultation is the next assessment technique to perform after inspection in abdominal assessments, followed by palpation and percussion.
During an interview, what action should a nurse conducting an interview with a client take to collect subjective data?
A. Takes minimal notes to avoid impeding observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors
B. Takes a great deal of notes to allow the client to continue at his or her own pace as the nurse records what he or she is saying
C. Takes notes because this allows the nurse to break eye contact with the client, which may increase the client's level of comfort
D. Takes notes to allow the nurse to shift attention away from the client, which may make the nurse more comfortable
Correct answer:
During an interview, a nurse should minimize note-taking to focus on the client and not impede the conversation. Taking minimal notes allows the nurse to effectively observe the client's nonverbal behaviors, which provide valuable subjective data. Option B, taking many notes, is incorrect as it can distract the nurse from the client's cues and hinder interaction. Option C, taking notes to break eye contact, is incorrect as it may decrease the client's comfort level and disrupt communication. Option D, taking notes to shift attention away from the client, is incorrect as it diminishes the client's importance and may make them uncomfortable during sensitive discussions. Therefore, the correct approach is for the nurse to take minimal notes, ensuring effective observation of the client's nonverbal behaviors while collecting subjective data.
When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, which of the following steps may be appropriate when communicating with the patient?
A. Divide the verbal communication into smaller sections and address one at a time.
B. Communicate only with written information.
C. Ask multiple questions in a row quickly to make sure the patient is remaining engaged.
D. Frequently communicate without assistive devices to help the patient improve their hearing.
Correct answer:
When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, it is important to divide verbal communication into smaller sections and address them one at a time. This approach helps the patient follow along more easily and understand the information being conveyed. While using written information can also be beneficial, solely relying on written communication may not always be practical or feasible for effective interaction. Asking multiple questions quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder their ability to process each question adequately. It is essential to give the patient sufficient time to comprehend and respond. Additionally, frequently communicating without assistive devices is not recommended. Using assistive devices can significantly enhance the patient's ability to hear and understand, promoting better communication and patient care.
A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:
A. light or fair complexion.
B. exposure to sun for extended periods of time.
C. certain diet and foods.
D. history of bad sunburns.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'certain diet and foods.' Risk factors that increase the chances of getting skin cancer include having a light or fair complexion, a history of bad sunburns, personal or family history of skin cancer, outdoor activities with sun exposure, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals, repeated trauma or injury resulting in scars, age over 50, male gender, and living in specific geographic locations. These factors can contribute to the development of skin cancer. Avoiding exposure to the sun, using protective clothing and sunscreen, and regular skin inspections are key preventive measures. Choice C, 'certain diet and foods,' is incorrect as diet is not a primary risk factor for skin cancer. Options A, B, and D are all valid risk factors associated with an increased risk of developing skin cancer.
A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?
A. Near vision
B. Central vision
C. Peripheral vision
D. Ocular movements
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.
A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?
A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision
Correct answer:
To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.
After delivering a healthy newborn 1 hour ago, a nurse notes a woman's radial pulse rate is 55 beats/min. What action should the nurse take based on this finding?
A. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider immediately
B. Helping the woman stay in bed and rest
C. Documenting the finding
D. Performing active and passive range-of-motion exercises
Correct answer:
After delivery, bradycardia (pulse rate 50-70 beats/min) may occur, reflecting the large amount of blood returning to the central circulation after delivery of the placenta. The increase in central circulation results in increased stroke volume, allowing a slower heart rate to provide adequate maternal circulation. A pulse rate of 55 beats/min falls within the normal range post-delivery, so there is no need to notify the healthcare provider immediately. It is important for the client to remain on bed rest in the immediate postpartum period to prevent complications. While range-of-motion exercises are beneficial for a client on bed rest, it is not the priority based on the data provided. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing action is to document the finding for accurate record-keeping and monitoring of the client's condition.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 2 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the NCLEX-PN exam guide.
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