NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 13
NCLEX-PN · health promotion
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questionsset 13
You teach screening, development, and prevention in the words a patient can use. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the NCLEX-PN exam guide or more NCLEX-PN practice questions.
Five health promotion questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse assisting with data collection for a client with kidney failure notes that the client has the appearance of generalized edema over the entire body. The nurse documents this finding using which terminology?
A. Anasarca
B. Ecchymosis
C. Unilateral edema
D. Increased vascularity of the skin tissue
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Anasarca
The correct term for generalized edema over the entire body is 'Anasarca.' Anasarca is indicative of a systemic issue such as congestive heart failure or kidney failure. It does not refer to increased vascularity of the skin tissue. Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by capillary bleeding into the tissues, unrelated to generalized edema. Unilateral edema is swelling in a specific area of the body, not the generalized edema observed in anasarca.
Question 2
The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?
A. Tylenol
B. Tramadol
C. Codeine
D. Morphine
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Morphine
Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.
Question 3
What is a chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption known as?
A. a drug incompatibility
B. a side effect
C. an adverse event
D. an allergic response
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — a drug incompatibility
A chemical reaction between drugs before their administration or absorption is termed a drug incompatibility. This phenomenon commonly occurs when drug solutions are mixed before intravenous administration but can also happen with orally administered drugs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because side effects, adverse events, and allergic responses typically occur after the drugs have been administered and absorbed, not before.
Question 4
While assisting with data collection, the client informs the nurse that he is having difficulty swallowing medications and food. The nurse gathers additional subjective data and documents that the client is experiencing which disorder?
A. Pyrosis
B. Anorexia
C. Eructation
D. Dysphagia
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Dysphagia
The correct answer is 'Dysphagia.' Dysphagia is the term used to indicate difficulty swallowing, which can occur in disorders of the throat or esophagus. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, not difficulty swallowing. Eructation is the medical term for belching, not difficulty swallowing. Pyrosis is heartburn, a burning sensation in the esophagus and stomach caused by the reflux of gastric acid, not difficulty swallowing.
Question 5
A nurse assisting with data collection plans to perform the Romberg test. After describing the test to the client, the nurse tells the client that it will help reveal which disorder?
A. Loss of hearing acuity
B. A problem with balance
C. A problem with distant hearing
D. A problem discriminating high-pitched and low-pitched sounds
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — A problem with balance
The Romberg test is a balance assessment that evaluates cerebellar function. During the test, the client stands with feet together and eyes closed, aiming to maintain balance for about 20 seconds. This test helps identify issues related to balance and proprioception, not hearing acuity or sound discrimination. Choices C and D are incorrect as the Romberg test focuses on balance, not distant hearing or sound discrimination.
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Question 6
A client who was given a diagnosis of hypertension 3 months ago is at the clinic for a checkup. Which type of database does the nurse use in performing an assessment?
A. Emergency
B. Follow-up
C. Complete (total)
D. Problem-centered
Correct answer:
The correct answer is 'Follow-up.' A follow-up database is used to assess the status of an identified problem at regular intervals. An emergency database is for urgent data collection during life-saving measures. A complete database involves a full health history and physical examination. A problem-centered (episodic) database focuses on a limited or short-term issue, typically centered around one problem or body system.
An allergic reaction is classified as what type of pharmacological effect?
A. a therapeutic effect
B. a side effect
C. an adverse effect
D. an incompatibility
Correct answer:
An allergic reaction is classified as an adverse effect because it is an unintended response to a medication that requires treatment. A side effect is an undesired but somewhat expected reaction to a drug that does not necessarily need intervention. Incompatibility refers to an unsuitable combination of substances that leads to an adverse effect. A therapeutic effect is the desired and intended outcome of a medication.
During data collection of a client with suspected carpal tunnel syndrome, a nurse plans to perform the Phalen test. The nurse should ask the client to perform which activity?
A. Dorsiflex the foot
B. Plantarflex the foot
C. Hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees for 60 seconds
D. Hyperextend the fingers with the palmar surfaces of the hands touching, holding the position for 60 seconds
Correct answer:
In the Phalen test, the nurse asks the client to hold the hands back to back while flexing the wrists 90 degrees. This position puts pressure on the median nerve, eliciting symptoms in carpal tunnel syndrome. Dorsiflexing or plantarflexing the foot and hyperextending the fingers are not associated with testing for carpal tunnel syndrome. Acute flexion of the wrist for 60 seconds produces no symptoms in the normal hand.
The mother of a newborn who was circumcised before discharge from the hospital calls the nurse at the pediatrician's office and tells the nurse that she is concerned because she has noticed a yellow crust over the circumcision site. The nurse provides which information to the mother?
A. That it could indicate a sign of an infection and the infant's temperature should be checked every 2 hours
B. That the crust is to be expected as a normal part of healing
C. To bring the infant to the pediatrician's office to be checked
D. To remove the crust, using a warm, wet face cloth and a mild soap
Correct answer:
After circumcision, a yellow crust may form over the circumcision site, which is a normal part of healing and should not be removed. The mother should be reassured that this crust is to be expected. Yellow crusting or discharge is not indicative of an infection, and there is no need to notify the pediatrician. Checking the infant's temperature every 2 hours is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary alarm to the mother.
A nurse suspects that a client has a distended bladder. On percussing the client's bladder, which finding does the nurse expect to note if the bladder is full?
A. Dull sounds
B. Hyperresonance sounds
C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
D. An absence of bowel sounds
Correct answer:
When percussing a full bladder, the nurse expects to note dull sounds over the symphysis pubis. This is because a full bladder produces a flat or dull sound. Hyperresonance sounds are present with gaseous distention of the abdomen, not a full bladder. Bowel sounds are auscultated, not percussed, so hypoactive bowel sounds or an absence of bowel sounds are unrelated findings when assessing bladder distention.
A nurse is preparing to auscultate for the presence of bowel sounds in a client who has just undergone surgery. The nurse places the stethoscope in which abdominal quadrant first?
A. Left upper quadrant
B. Left lower quadrant
C. Right upper quadrant
D. Right lower quadrant
Correct answer:
The correct answer is the right lower quadrant. The nurse starts auscultating in this quadrant at the ileocecal valve as bowel sounds are normally always present there. Then, the nurse proceeds to listen for bowel sounds in the other quadrants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the initial placement of the stethoscope should be in the right lower quadrant to assess bowel sounds post-surgery.
Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn infant, what should the nurse do?
A. Request parental consent to administer the vaccine.
B. Check the infant for jaundice.
C. Check the infant's temperature.
D. Obtain parental consent to administer the vaccine.
Correct answer:
Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn infant, the nurse must obtain parental consent. Hepatitis B vaccine is typically given at birth, 1 month, and 6 months of age. Checking the infant for jaundice, checking the temperature, and requesting a hepatitis blood screen are unnecessary in this context. Parental consent is crucial for any medical intervention involving minors.
A nurse is palpating a client's sinus areas. Which sensation does the nurse expect the client to indicate that he or she is feeling during palpation if the sinuses are normal?
A. Firm pressure
B. Pain behind the eyes
C. Pain during palpation
D. Pressure producing an acute headache
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Firm pressure. When the sinuses are normal, the client is expected to feel firm pressure during palpation. Pain during palpation of the sinuses is indicative of acute sinusitis, not a normal finding. Pain behind the eyes and pressure producing an acute headache are symptoms of acute sinusitis, not sensations felt during sinus palpation in normal sinuses.
When caring for pediatric clients, the nurse should pay special attention to the psychosocial development stages credited to whom?
A. Robert Peck
B. Erik Erikson
C. Sigmund Freud
D. Jean Piaget
Correct answer:
Erik Erikson is credited with the psychosocial development theory and eight stages. The nurse should consider these stages when caring for pediatric clients to evaluate their development. Jean Piaget is known for cognitive development, Sigmund Freud for psychosexual development, and Robert Peck for aging theory. Therefore, the correct answer is Erik Erikson.
A nurse is preparing to listen to the apical heart rate in the area of the mitral valve in an adult client. The nurse should place the stethoscope on which part of the client's chest?
A. Second left interspace
B. Second right interspace
C. Left lower sternal border
D. Fifth left interspace at the midclavicular line
Correct answer:
The correct placement for auscultating the apical heart rate in the area of the mitral valve is the fifth left interspace at the midclavicular line. Placing the stethoscope in the second left interspace would be to listen to the pulmonic valve, the second right interspace is for the aortic valve, and the left lower sternal border is for the tricuspid valve.
NCLEX-PN health promotion practice questions, set 13 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
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