You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A nurse is demonstrating behaviors that the treatment team is attempting to get the patient to develop. The nurse is integrating which theory?
A. Erikson’s model of psychosocial development
B. Albert Bandura’s social cognitive theory
C. Skinner’s operant conditioning
D. Freud’s psychoanalytic model
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Albert Bandura’s social cognitive theory
The correct answer is B: Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory. The nurse is integrating this theory by demonstrating behaviors for the patient to develop through observational learning and modeling. Bandura's theory emphasizes that individuals learn by observing others and imitating their behaviors. The treatment team is likely using this approach to encourage the patient to adopt positive behaviors by showcasing them through the nurse's actions.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Erikson’s model of psychosocial development - This theory focuses on stages of psychosocial development and identity formation, not on observational learning or modeling.
C: Skinner’s operant conditioning - This theory revolves around reinforcement and punishment to shape behavior, which is different from the observational learning emphasized in the scenario.
D: Freud’s psychoanalytic model - This theory is based on unconscious processes and early childhood experiences, not on observational learning and modeling as seen in the nurse's behavior.
Question 2
A Native American client is admitted to an emergency department (ED) with an ulcerated toe secondary to uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. The client refuses to talk to a physician unless a shaman is present. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Assist the client in contacting a shaman of his choice.
B. Explain to the client that voodoo medicine will not heal the ulcerated toe.
C. Ask the client to explain what the shaman can do that the physician cannot.
D. Inform the client that refusing treatment is a clients right.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Assist the client in contacting a shaman of his choice.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Cultural Competence: In respecting the client's cultural beliefs and practices, it is essential to honor the request for a shaman's presence.
2. Collaboration: By assisting the client in contacting a shaman, the nurse promotes collaboration between traditional healing methods and medical interventions.
3. Trust Building: Respecting the client's request fosters trust and rapport, which are crucial for effective communication and care.
4. Patient-Centered Care: This approach aligns with the principle of patient-centered care, where the client's preferences and values are prioritized.
Summary of Other Choices:
B: This choice is dismissive and disrespectful of the client's beliefs, potentially causing harm by undermining trust and rapport.
C: This choice puts the client on the defensive and does not address the immediate need for a shaman's presence.
D: This choice fails to address the client's request and focuses on the right to refuse treatment, which is not the immediate concern in
Question 3
A patient experiencing primary insomnia asks the nurse, I take a nap during the day. Doesn't that make up for a lost night's sleep? Select the nurse's best reply.
A. Circadian drives give daytime naps a structure different from nighttime sleep.Â
B. The body clock operates on a 24-hour cycle, making nap effectiveness unpredictable.Â
C. It is a matter of habit and expectation. We expect to be more refreshed from a night's sleep.Â
D. Sleep restores homeostasis but works more efficiently when aided by melatonin secreted at night.Â
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Circadian drives give daytime naps a structure different from nighttime sleep.Â
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Circadian drives refer to the body's internal clock regulating sleep-wake cycles.
2. Daytime naps disrupt this cycle, affecting the quality of nighttime sleep.
3. Nighttime sleep is essential for complete restorative functions like deep sleep stages.
4. Daytime naps may not provide the same physiological benefits as nighttime sleep.
5. Thus, the nurse's response highlights the structural differences between daytime naps and nighttime sleep, emphasizing the importance of prioritizing nighttime sleep for optimal rest and restoration.
Summary:
- Option B: While the body clock operates on a 24-hour cycle, it doesn't address the structural differences in sleep quality between daytime naps and nighttime sleep.
- Option C: Habit and expectation are factors, but the physiological differences between daytime naps and nighttime sleep are more crucial.
- Option D: While melatonin aids sleep, the focus here is on the structural differences between daytime naps and nighttime sleep.
Question 4
A staff nurse on a psychiatric unit knows that patients often have trouble sleeping because of their psychiatric conditions. Which of the following would reflect a psychiatric nursing intervention to appropriately address this problem?
A. Limiting amounts of evening snacks and beverages
B. Involving patients in a volleyball game immediately before bedtime
C. Enforcing the rule that all patients be in bed with lights out by 10:30 PM
D. Encouraging patients to take short naps in the afternoons
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Limiting amounts of evening snacks and beverages
Correct Answer: A: Limiting amounts of evening snacks and beverages
Rationale:
1. Limiting evening snacks and beverages can help regulate patients' sleep patterns by reducing stimulants that may interfere with sleep.
2. Nutrition plays a role in sleep quality, and avoiding heavy meals close to bedtime can promote better sleep.
3. This intervention addresses a common issue in psychiatric patients without imposing strict rules or physical activity.
4. It focuses on a holistic approach to improving sleep quality by considering dietary factors.
Summary:
B: Involving patients in a volleyball game immediately before bedtime - This choice is incorrect as vigorous physical activity before bedtime can be stimulating and may disrupt sleep.
C: Enforcing the rule that all patients be in bed with lights out by 10:30 PM - This choice is incorrect as it is too rigid and may not address the underlying causes of sleep disturbances.
D: Encouraging patients to take short naps in the afternoons - This choice is incorrect as daytime
Question 5
A Gulf War veteran has been homeless since being discharged from military service. He is now diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse practitioner recognizes that assertive community treatment (ACT) is a good option for this patient since ACT provides:
A. Psychiatric home care
B. Care for hard-to-engage, seriously ill patients
C. Outpatient community mental health center care
D. A comprehensive emergency service model
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Care for hard-to-engage, seriously ill patients
The correct answer is B: Care for hard-to-engage, seriously ill patients. ACT is an evidence-based, multidisciplinary approach designed for individuals with severe mental illnesses who have difficulty engaging with traditional mental health services. It offers intensive, team-based support to address the complex needs of this population, including housing, medication management, and social support. This approach is particularly beneficial for homeless individuals with schizophrenia, as it provides ongoing, personalized care to help them stabilize and reintegrate into the community.
Incorrect choices:
A: Psychiatric home care - ACT is not limited to home care but involves a comprehensive, community-based approach.
C: Outpatient community mental health center care - While ACT involves community-based care, it is more intensive and individualized than standard outpatient services.
D: A comprehensive emergency service model - ACT is focused on providing ongoing, long-term support rather than emergency services.
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Question 6
A patient had a venous thrombosis 3 weeks ago and is now taking warfarin. When visiting the laboratory to have a prothrombin time drawn, the patient reports drinking ginseng tea to stimulate the immune system. Which nursing diagnosis applies?
A. Impaired memory related to neurological changes
B. Deficient knowledge related to potentially harmful drug interactions
C. Ineffective denial related to mismanagement of therapeutic regime
D. Effective management of the therapeutic regime related to augmentation of anti-coagulant therapy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Deficient knowledge related to potentially harmful drug interactions. The patient's use of ginseng tea can interact with warfarin, potentially leading to increased risk of bleeding. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate as the patient lacks knowledge about the potential harmful interaction between ginseng and warfarin.
A: Impaired memory related to neurological changes is not the correct answer because there is no indication in the scenario that the patient is experiencing memory issues due to neurological changes.
C: Ineffective denial related to mismanagement of therapeutic regime is not the correct answer as there is no evidence in the scenario to suggest that the patient is in denial about their treatment regimen.
D: Effective management of the therapeutic regime related to augmentation of anticoagulant therapy is not the correct answer because the patient's use of ginseng tea can interfere with warfarin therapy, indicating a lack of understanding rather than effective management.
A nurse is caring for a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction. Which following intervention should the nurse include in the point of care?
A. Draw a troponin level every four hours
B. Performance EKG every 12 hours
C. Plant oxygen tent fell over minutes via rebreather mask
D. Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Draw a troponin level every four hours. Troponin levels are important indicators of myocardial infarction. Drawing troponin levels every four hours allows the nurse to closely monitor the client's cardiac enzyme levels for any signs of ongoing myocardial damage. This frequent monitoring helps in early detection of complications and guides further treatment decisions.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
B: Performance EKG every 12 hours - While EKG monitoring is important in assessing cardiac function, performing it every 12 hours may not be as frequent as needed in the acute phase post-myocardial infarction.
C: Plant oxygen tent fell over minutes via rebreather mask - This intervention does not directly address the client's recovery from myocardial infarction and is not a standard post-MI care measure.
D: Obtain a cardiac rehabilitation consult - While cardiac rehabilitation is essential for long-term recovery, it is not a point-of-care intervention immediately post-my
During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices the following: an inability to identify vibrations at her ankle and to identify the position of her big toe, a slower and more deliberate gait, and a slightly impaired tactile sensation. All other neurologic findings are normal. The nurse should interpret that these findings indicate:
A. CN dysfunction.
B. Lesion in the cerebral cortex.
C. Normal changes attributable to aging.
D. Demyelination of nerves attributable to a lesion.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Choice C (Correct Answer - Normal changes attributable to aging):
1. As people age, it is common to experience a decrease in sensory perception and motor function due to changes in the nervous system.
2. The inability to identify vibrations and position of the big toe, slower gait, and impaired tactile sensation are typical age-related changes.
3. Since all other neurologic findings are normal, it suggests these findings are likely due to normal aging processes.
4. There are no signs of acute dysfunction or specific lesions, supporting the interpretation that these findings are part of the natural aging process.
Summary of other choices:
A: CN dysfunction - Not supported as there are no findings indicative of cranial nerve dysfunction.
B: Lesion in the cerebral cortex - Not supported as there are no signs of a specific lesion in the cerebral cortex.
D: Demyelination of nerves attributable to a lesion - Not supported as there is no evidence of demyelination or lesion causing nerve damage.
Which is the goal of the cognitive-behavioral theory model according to Beck and Ellis?
A. Developing satisfactory relationships, maturity, and relative freedom from anxiety.
B. Substituting rational for irrational beliefs and eliminating self-defeating behaviors.
C. Facing reality and developing standards for behaving responsibly.
D. Reducing bodily tensions and managing stress by biofeedback and relaxation training.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because the goal of the cognitive-behavioral theory model according to Beck and Ellis is to substitute rational beliefs for irrational ones and eliminate self-defeating behaviors. This approach focuses on identifying and challenging negative thought patterns and beliefs that contribute to emotional distress and maladaptive behaviors. By replacing irrational beliefs with rational ones, individuals can improve their mental health and overall well-being.
A: Developing satisfactory relationships, maturity, and freedom from anxiety is more aligned with a humanistic or social learning theory perspective, not specifically cognitive-behavioral theory.
C: Facing reality and developing standards for behaving responsibly is important but not the primary goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy.
D: Reducing bodily tensions and managing stress through biofeedback and relaxation training is more related to relaxation techniques and stress management, not the core focus of cognitive-behavioral therapy.
A nurse is working as part of a community disaster response team. When responding to a community disaster, the nurse integrates understanding of individuals'responses, anticipating which of the following?
A. People can become aggressive and violent when their basic needs are threatened.
B. People involved in the disaster will always put the welfare of others before their own.
C. Losses incurred during the disaster have little, if any, long-term effect on victims.
D. The psychological distress associated with disasters is felt immediately.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: People can become aggressive and violent when their basic needs are threatened. In a disaster situation, individuals may experience fear, stress, and uncertainty, leading to heightened emotions and potential aggression. This response is a natural survival instinct when basic needs such as safety, shelter, and food are threatened. Anticipating this response allows the nurse to prepare for managing potential conflicts and ensuring the safety of both victims and responders.
Choices B and C are incorrect because people involved in a disaster may prioritize their own survival and well-being before helping others, depending on the situation. Losses incurred during a disaster can have significant long-term effects on victims, such as trauma, grief, and financial hardship. Choice D is incorrect because the psychological distress associated with disasters may not always be immediately felt, as some individuals may initially be in a state of shock or disbelief before processing their emotions.
Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the cohesiveness of a group in group therapy?
A. It is commonly present in the first meeting of the group.
B. It is necessary for the group to have maximum cohesiveness, the more the better.
C. Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members think alike and many things are left unspoken.
D. Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes.
Correct answer:
Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes. It is not common for the group to be cohesive during the first meeting of the group. During the first meeting, or the initial stage, members introduce themselves and the parameters of the group are established. Group members begin to 'check out' one another and the leaders as they determine their levels of comfort in the group setting. Cohesiveness is associated with the working stage of a group that may take two or three sessions in a therapy group because members must develop some level of trust before sharing personal feelings or difficult situations. If a group is 'overly cohesive,' in that uniformity and agreement become the group's implicit goals, there may be a negative effect on the group outcome as members may not offer needed feedback and this may thwart critical thinking and creative problem solving. Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members work together cooperatively to accomplish the purpose.
Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the cohesiveness of a group in group therapy?
A. It is commonly present in the first meeting of the group.
B. It is necessary for the group to have maximum cohesiveness, the more the better.
C. Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members think alike and many things are left unspoken.
D. Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes.
Correct answer:
Cohesiveness is a desirable group characteristic that is associated with positive group outcomes. It is not common for the group to be cohesive during the first meeting of the group. During the first meeting, or the initial stage, members introduce themselves and the parameters of the group are established. Group members begin to 'check out' one another and the leaders as they determine their levels of comfort in the group setting. Cohesiveness is associated with the working stage of a group that may take two or three sessions in a therapy group because members must develop some level of trust before sharing personal feelings or difficult situations. If a group is 'overly cohesive,' in that uniformity and agreement become the group's implicit goals, there may be a negative effect on the group outcome as members may not offer needed feedback and this may thwart critical thinking and creative problem solving. Group cohesiveness is the degree to which members work together cooperatively to accomplish the purpose.
To establish rapport with a 10-year-old child who is hospitalized in a psychiatric setting, which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A. Let's compare your situation to that of Cinderella's in the fairy tale.
B. I'm going to use the DECA tool to measure your self-control and initiative.
C. Let's have you draw a picture of yourself.
D. Would you like to play a game of checkers with me?
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: "Would you like to play a game of checkers with me?" This choice is most appropriate as it focuses on building a therapeutic relationship through a non-threatening and engaging activity. Playing a game of checkers can help establish rapport, foster trust, and create a sense of normalcy for the child in a psychiatric setting. It allows for social interaction, provides a distraction, and can help the child feel more comfortable and open up to the nurse.
Explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Comparing the child's situation to Cinderella's in a fairy tale may not be relatable or relevant to the child's experiences, potentially minimizing their feelings and concerns.
B: Using a tool to measure self-control and initiative may come off as clinical and impersonal, possibly making the child feel like they are being evaluated rather than supported.
C: Asking the child to draw a picture of themselves may be intimidating or invasive, as it delves into personal expression without
A Gulf War veteran has been homeless since being discharged from military service. He is now diagnosed with schizophrenia. The nurse practitioner recognizes that assertive community treatment (ACT) is a good option for this patient since ACT provides:
A. Psychiatric home care
B. Care for hard-to-engage, seriously ill patients
C. Outpatient community mental health center care
D. A comprehensive emergency service model
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Care for hard-to-engage, seriously ill patients. ACT is an evidence-based, multidisciplinary approach designed for individuals with severe mental illnesses who have difficulty engaging with traditional mental health services. It offers intensive, team-based support to address the complex needs of this population, including housing, medication management, and social support. This approach is particularly beneficial for homeless individuals with schizophrenia, as it provides ongoing, personalized care to help them stabilize and reintegrate into the community.
Incorrect choices:
A: Psychiatric home care - ACT is not limited to home care but involves a comprehensive, community-based approach.
C: Outpatient community mental health center care - While ACT involves community-based care, it is more intensive and individualized than standard outpatient services.
D: A comprehensive emergency service model - ACT is focused on providing ongoing, long-term support rather than emergency services.
During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?
A. Assist the client in developing alternative coping skills.
B. Remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach.
C. Ask the client why she is so anxious.
D. Administer a PRN sedative to help relieve her anxiety.
Correct answer:
During admission to a psychiatric unit, it is crucial for the registered nurse to remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach when addressing a client who is extremely anxious. By staying composed and adopting a matter-of-fact demeanor, the nurse can help establish trust and promote a sense of calm in the client. This approach can also convey a sense of reassurance and stability, which can be beneficial in managing the client's anxiety. Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills (Choice A) may be important in the long term but is not the most immediate priority during the admission process. Asking the client why she is anxious (Choice C) may not be helpful at this moment as the client may not be able to articulate the specific reasons due to her heightened anxiety. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice D) should not be the initial intervention as it does not address the underlying cause of the anxiety and should be considered only if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 10 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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