You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A patient is being educated about the difference between mental health and mental illness. Which statement by the patient reflects an accurate understanding of mental health?
A. Mental health is the absence of any stressors.
B. Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
C. Mental health is incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
D. Mental health is a diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Mental health is successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment.
The correct answer is B. Mental health is defined as the successful adaptation to stressors in the internal and external environment. This includes having thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are age-appropriate and congruent with cultural and societal norms. Mental health is not solely the absence of stressors or incongruence between thoughts, feelings, and behavior, nor is it a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5. Choice A is incorrect because mental health is not just the absence of stressors but the ability to adapt to them. Choice C is wrong as mental health involves congruence, not incongruence, between thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. Choice D is inaccurate as mental health is a broader concept than a specific diagnostic category in the DSM-5.
Question 2
What is a nursing implication derived from the anti-psychiatry movement?
A. Nurses should solely rely on psychiatrists' decisions without involving clients in the care process.
B. Nurses should disregard clients' personal experiences and narratives about their mental health.
C. Nurses should adopt a client-centered approach that respects individuals' rights and preferences in care.
D. Nurses should exclusively use involuntary treatment methods for managing all psychiatric clients.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Nurses should adopt a client-centered approach that respects individuals' rights and preferences in care.
The correct answer is C because the anti-psychiatry movement advocates for a client-centered approach that respects individuals' rights and preferences in care. This implies that nurses should prioritize involving clients in decision-making, respecting their autonomy and preferences. This aligns with the principles of person-centered care and empowers clients in their treatment process.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they go against the core principles of the anti-psychiatry movement and ethical nursing practice. Choice A suggests a paternalistic approach, Choice B disregards clients' perspectives, and Choice D promotes the use of coercive methods, all of which are contrary to the values of client-centered care and respect for individual autonomy.
Question 3
Which of the following is one way to prevent burns and scalds?
A. Using lids on all cold liquids served to residents
B. Ensuring objects left in the sun are cool before using
C. Serving liquids to residents while they are standing
D. Using the highest settings on hair dryers
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Ensuring objects left in the sun are cool before using
Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct:
1. Ensuring objects left in the sun are cool before using prevents burns and scalds from hot surfaces.
2. Hot objects left in the sun can reach dangerous temperatures, causing burns upon contact.
3. By checking and ensuring objects are cool before using, the risk of burns and scalds is significantly reduced.
4. This practice promotes safety and prevents accidents related to hot surfaces.
Summary:
Choice B is the correct answer because it directly addresses the prevention of burns and scalds by advocating for the safe use of objects that may become hot when left in the sun. Choices A, C, and D do not focus on the key factor of heat exposure that leads to burns and scalds, making them incorrect options.
Question 4
Which patient would the nurse determine to be at highest risk for dysfunctional grief? The patient:
A. Whose 16-year-old daughter was raped and killed while going on an errand for the patient
B. Whose 86-year-old mother, with whom she has shared her home, died after a long illness.
C. Who attended a support group and had been assisted by hospice to care for her terminally ill husband
D. Who attended a bereavement group, where she learned to express feelings after the deaths of her twin daughters
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Whose 16-year-old daughter was raped and killed while going on an errand for the patient
The patient whose 16-year-old daughter was raped and killed while going on an errand for the patient would be determined to be at highest risk for dysfunctional grief. This traumatic event involves sudden and violent loss of a child, which can lead to complicated or dysfunctional grief reactions. The circumstances of the death, involving violence, unexpectedness, and the close relationship with the deceased, can significantly impact the grieving process. The patient may struggle with intense emotions, guilt, anger, and unresolved trauma, making them more vulnerable to experiencing dysfunctional grief. It is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate support and interventions to help the patient navigate through this complex grieving process.
Question 5
Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention for a patient who has been prescribed an antipsychotic medication?
A. Monitoring for signs of weight loss and dehydration
B. Encouraging the patient to maintain adequate hydration and nutrition
C. Providing education on the importance of taking the medication daily
D. Assessing for signs of extrapyramidal symptoms
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Assessing for signs of extrapyramidal symptoms
The correct answer is D: Assessing for signs of extrapyramidal symptoms. This is the priority intervention because antipsychotic medications can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which can be serious and require immediate attention. Monitoring for these symptoms allows for early detection and intervention to prevent further complications.
A: Monitoring for signs of weight loss and dehydration is important but not the priority compared to assessing for extrapyramidal symptoms.
B: Encouraging the patient to maintain adequate hydration and nutrition is important for overall health but not the priority in this case.
C: Providing education on the importance of taking the medication daily is essential but assessing for potential side effects takes precedence.
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Question 6
A client who has agoraphobia (a fear of crowds) is beginning desensitization with the therapist, and the RN is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client's plan of care?
A. Encourage substitution of positive thoughts for negative ones.
B. Establish trust by providing a calm, safe environment.
C. Progressively expose the client to larger crowds.
D. Encourage deep breathing when anxiety escalates in a crowd.
Correct answer:
Establishing trust and providing a calm, safe environment is crucial when working with clients with agoraphobia undergoing desensitization therapy. This approach helps build a foundation of safety and security, allowing the client to feel more comfortable and supported during the exposure process. Encouraging positive thoughts (choice A) is important, but ensuring a safe environment takes precedence. Progressively exposing the client to larger crowds (choice C) should be done gradually and in a controlled manner; rushing this process can be overwhelming and counterproductive. Encouraging deep breathing (choice D) is a helpful coping mechanism, but creating a safe and trusting environment is the initial priority to facilitate successful desensitization therapy.
Nurses and other health care provides often have difficulty helping a terminally ill patient through the necessary stages leading to acceptance of death. Which of the following strategies is most helpful to the nurse in achieving this goal?
A. Taking psychology courses related to gerontology
B. Reading books and other literature on the subject of thanatology
C. Reflecting on the significance of death
D. Reviewing varying cultural beliefs and practices related to death
Correct answer:
Reflecting on the significance of death is the most helpful strategy for nurses in assisting terminally ill patients through the stages leading to acceptance of death. By reflecting on the significance of death, nurses can better understand their own beliefs and fears surrounding death, which can help them empathize with and support patients in a more meaningful way. This introspection allows nurses to develop a deeper sense of compassion, sensitivity, and insight into the patient's emotional and psychological journey towards acceptance. While other strategies like taking psychology courses or studying cultural beliefs can be beneficial, personal reflection is crucial in fostering the emotional connection necessary for effective care in end-of-life situations.
A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
A. Provide a structured environment with little stimuli.
B. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
C. Allow the client to set her own schedule.
D. Administer sedative medications as needed.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Provide a structured environment with little stimuli. In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased energy, agitation, and impulsivity. A structured environment with minimal stimuli helps reduce overstimulation and provides a sense of predictability, promoting a sense of safety and stability. This intervention can help prevent escalation of manic symptoms and promote self-regulation.
Summary:
B: Encouraging group activities may overstimulate the client and exacerbate manic symptoms.
C: Allowing the client to set her own schedule may lead to erratic behavior and lack of boundaries.
D: Administering sedative medications should be a last resort and not the initial intervention for managing manic symptoms.
An older male patient has suffered with episodic pruritus and skin eruptions for over 2 years. This patient tells the nurse, “When my skin gets better for a few days, I start worrying that it's going to start itching again soon. I think my worry may actually trigger the problems to start all over again.†Which self-help technique should the nurse consider suggesting for this patient?
A. Melatonin
B. Meditation
C. Purification
D. Acupuncture
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Meditation. Meditation can help the patient manage stress and anxiety, which are known triggers for pruritus and skin eruptions. By practicing mindfulness and relaxation techniques, the patient can reduce the psychological impact of worrying about their condition, leading to potential improvement in their symptoms.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Melatonin is a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles and may not directly address the patient's psychological stress.
C: Purification is a vague term and does not offer a specific technique to help the patient manage their worry and stress.
D: Acupuncture may have benefits for certain conditions, but it may not specifically address the patient's psychological concerns related to their skin issues.
The nurse is teaching a class on preventing osteoporosis to a group of perimenopausal women. Which of these actions is the best way to prevent or delay bone loss in this group?
A. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements
B. Taking medications to prevent osteoporosis
C. Performing physical activity, such as fast walking
D. Assessing bone density annually
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Performing physical activity, such as fast walking. Physical activity, particularly weight-bearing exercises like fast walking, helps to strengthen bones and prevent bone loss. Weight-bearing activities increase bone density and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Regular physical activity also improves balance and coordination, reducing the risk of falls and fractures. Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements (choice A) is important but should be combined with physical activity for optimal bone health. Taking medications (choice B) is typically reserved for those at high risk or already diagnosed with osteoporosis. Assessing bone density annually (choice D) is important for monitoring bone health but does not directly prevent bone loss.
How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?
A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's symptoms and contributing factors.
D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.
Correct answer:
Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to determine which diagnosis to give a patient. The DSM-5 is a comprehensive manual published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) that outlines specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders. It aims to ensure accurate and consistent diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D provide inaccurate information. Hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association does not provide diagnostic labels for mental disorders. Choice C, although mentioning the assessment of patients, does not highlight the specific criteria and guidelines provided by the DSM-5 that psychiatrists use to assign diagnoses.
A nurse works with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder who has frequent flashbacks as well as persistent symptoms of arousal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
A. Trigger flashbacks intentionally in order to help the patient learn to cope with them.
B. Explain that the physical symptoms are related to the psychological state.
C. Encourage repression of memories associated with the traumatic event.
D. Support numbing as a temporary way to manage intolerable feelings.
Correct answer:
Persons with posttraumatic stress disorder often experience somatic symptoms or sympathetic nervous system arousal that can be confusing and distressing. Explaining that these are the body's responses to psychological trauma helps the patient understand how such symptoms are part of the illness and something that will respond to treatment. This decreases powerlessness over the symptoms and helps instill a sense of hope. It also helps the patient to understand how relaxation, breathing exercises, and imagery can be helpful in symptom reduction. The goal of treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder is to come to terms with the event so treatment efforts would not include repression of memories or numbing. Triggering flashbacks would increase patient distress.
Clint, a client on the psychiatric unit, has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He begins to tell the nurse about how the CIA is looking for him and will kill him if they find him. The most appropriate response by the nurse is:
A. “That's ridiculous, Clint. No one is going to hurt you.â€Â
B. “The CIA isn't interested in people like you, Clint.â€Â
C. “Why do you think the CIA wants to kill you?â€Â
D. “I know you believe that, Clint, but it's really hard for me to believe.â€Â
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: “I know you believe that, Clint, but it's really hard for me to believe.†This response acknowledges Clint's belief without validating or dismissing it, showing empathy and respect for his feelings. It avoids confrontation or denial, which could escalate his paranoia. Choice A dismisses Clint's concerns, potentially making him feel unheard and increasing his distress. Choice B minimizes Clint's beliefs, which can be invalidating and damaging to the therapeutic relationship. Choice C, while open-ended, may not address Clint's emotional needs and could lead to further delusional elaboration. Overall, choice D demonstrates empathy, validation, and nonjudgmental attitude, promoting trust and effective communication with Clint.
A nurse works with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder who has frequent flashbacks as well as persistent symptoms of arousal. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
A. Trigger flashbacks intentionally in order to help the patient learn to cope with them.
B. Explain that the physical symptoms are related to the psychological state.
C. Encourage repression of memories associated with the traumatic event.
D. Support numbing as a temporary way to manage intolerable feelings.
Correct answer:
Persons with posttraumatic stress disorder often experience somatic symptoms or sympathetic nervous system arousal that can be confusing and distressing. Explaining that these are the body's responses to psychological trauma helps the patient understand how such symptoms are part of the illness and something that will respond to treatment. This decreases powerlessness over the symptoms and helps instill a sense of hope. It also helps the patient to understand how relaxation, breathing exercises, and imagery can be helpful in symptom reduction. The goal of treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder is to come to terms with the event so treatment efforts would not include repression of memories or numbing. Triggering flashbacks would increase patient distress.
A patient is experiencing psychomotor agitation associated with major depressive disorder. Which observation would the nurse associate with this symptom? The patient
A. paces aimlessly around the room.
B. asks the nurse to repeat instructions.
C. complains of prickly skin sensations.
D. demonstrates slowed verbal responses.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because psychomotor agitation in major depressive disorder typically manifests as excessive physical activity, such as pacing aimlessly around the room. This behavior is driven by inner restlessness and an inability to sit still.
Choice B is incorrect because asking the nurse to repeat instructions is more indicative of cognitive impairment or difficulty with concentration rather than psychomotor agitation.
Choice C is incorrect as complaints of prickly skin sensations are more likely related to anxiety or sensory issues rather than psychomotor agitation.
Choice D is incorrect because slowed verbal responses are associated with psychomotor retardation, the opposite of psychomotor agitation seen in major depressive disorder.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 46 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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