You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A suspicious, socially isolated patient lives alone, eats one meal a day at a local shelter, and spends the remaining daily food allowance on cigarettes. Select a community psychiatric nurse's best initial action.
A. Explore ways to help the patient stop smoking.
B. Report the situation to the manager of the shelter.
C. Assess the patient's weight; determine foods and amounts eaten.
D. Arrange hospitalization for the patient in order to formulate a new treatment plan.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Assess the patient's weight; determine foods and amounts eaten.
Correct Answer: C. Assess the patient's weight; determine foods and amounts eaten.
Rationale: The best initial action is to assess the patient's nutritional status by evaluating weight and food intake. This step helps identify potential malnutrition or other health issues related to the patient's eating habits. By understanding the patient's dietary patterns, the nurse can develop a targeted intervention plan to address the patient's physical health needs. This approach focuses on gathering essential information before making any further decisions or interventions.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Exploring ways to help the patient stop smoking is important but addressing the patient's nutritional needs takes precedence.
B: Reporting to the shelter manager may not directly address the patient's health concerns and may not lead to appropriate intervention.
D: Hospitalization should be considered only if there is an immediate threat to the patient's health and after a comprehensive assessment has been conducted.
Question 2
Which of the following situations may put a nurse on an inpatient unit in legal jeopardy for battery? Select all that apply.
A. A nurse threatens a client with bodily harm if the client refuses medications.
B. A client is injured while being forcibly placed in four-point restraints because of low staffing.
C. A nurse gives three times the ordered medication dosage because of a calculation error and does not report the incident, resulting in harm to the client.
D. A client is held against his or her will because of medication nonadherence.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — A client is injured while being forcibly placed in four-point restraints because of low staffing.
The correct answer is B: A client is injured while being forcibly placed in four-point restraints because of low staffing.
Rationale:
1. Battery is the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another without consent.
2. Forcibly placing a client in restraints without proper justification or consent can be considered harmful touching, potentially leading to legal jeopardy for battery.
3. Low staffing does not justify improper use of restraints, as it is the responsibility of the nurse to ensure safe and appropriate care for the client.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Threatening a client with bodily harm is intimidation and coercion, not physical touching, which is required for battery.
C. Giving excess medication due to an error is a medication error, not battery. Reporting and addressing the error is crucial to prevent harm.
D. Holding a client against their will due to nonadherence may be related to ethical or legal issues, but it does not involve direct physical touching that constitutes battery.
Question 3
A nurse caring for a patient taking a serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) will develop outcome criteria related to:
A. mood improvement
B. logical thought processes
C. reduced levels of motor activity
D. decreased extrapyramidal symptoms
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — mood improvement
The correct answer is A: mood improvement. SSRI medications are primarily used to treat depression and anxiety disorders by increasing serotonin levels in the brain, which can lead to improved mood. Outcome criteria for a patient taking an SSRI should focus on monitoring and assessing mood changes to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication.
B: Logical thought processes is incorrect because SSRI medications do not directly target cognitive processes, so it is not a specific outcome criteria related to SSRI use.
C: Reduced levels of motor activity is incorrect because SSRI medications do not typically cause significant changes in motor activity as a primary effect, so it is not a relevant outcome criteria for monitoring patients on SSRIs.
D: Decreased extrapyramidal symptoms is incorrect because extrapyramidal symptoms are typically associated with antipsychotic medications, not SSRIs. Monitoring for extrapyramidal symptoms would not be a relevant outcome criteria for a patient taking an SSRI.
Question 4
A person was supposed to meet a friend at a local theatre to see a movie. The friend never showed up. The person's initial thought was, 'My friend didn't come because she doesn't like me.' This automatic thought was most likely inferred from which irrational belief?
A. I'm worthless, so no one could really want to be my friend.
B. Movies are a waste of time and money anyway.
C. I'm sure she just got confused and thought we were going to a different movie.
D. I'm so forgetful and confused sometimes; I probably wrote down the wrong time.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — I'm worthless, so no one could really want to be my friend.
The correct answer is A: "I'm worthless, so no one could really want to be my friend." This automatic thought reflects the irrational belief of personal worthlessness leading to the assumption that others do not genuinely like or care about the person. This cognitive distortion is known as personalization, where the individual attributes external events to themselves in a negative way. In this scenario, the person's immediate conclusion that the friend didn't show up because of a personal flaw is an example of personalization.
Other choices are incorrect because:
B: "Movies are a waste of time and money anyway." - This choice introduces a different irrational belief about movies, not about personal worthiness.
C: "I'm sure she just got confused and thought we were going to a different movie." - This choice reflects a more neutral assumption without negative self-evaluation.
D: "I'm so forgetful and confused sometimes; I probably wrote down the wrong time." - This choice involves self-blame for a practical
Question 5
An 80-year-old woman is visiting the clinic for a checkup. She states, 'I can't walk as much as I used to.' The nurse is observing for motor dysfunction in her hip and should ask her to:
A. Internally rotate her hip while she is sitting.
B. Abduct her hip while she is lying on her back.
C. Adduct her hip while she is lying on her back.
D. Externally rotate her hip while she is standing.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Abduct her hip while she is lying on her back.
The correct answer is B: Abduct her hip while she is lying on her back. This action tests the strength and range of motion of the hip abductors, which are commonly affected in older adults leading to difficulty in walking. By asking the patient to abduct her hip while lying on her back, the nurse can assess if there is any weakness or limitation in her hip abduction movement, which can indicate underlying motor dysfunction. Additionally, this position minimizes the impact of gravity and stabilizes the pelvis, allowing for a more accurate assessment of hip abduction strength.
Incorrect options:
A: Internally rotate her hip while she is sitting - This does not specifically target the hip abductors, which are more relevant in assessing walking difficulty.
C: Adduct her hip while she is lying on her back - Adduction movement is not as relevant in assessing motor dysfunction related to walking difficulty in this context.
D: Externally rotate her hip while she is standing - Standing position and external
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Question 6
When caring for a client with anorexia nervosa in a psychiatric unit, which intervention should the nurse implement to address the client's nutritional needs?
A. Provide small, frequent meals throughout the day.
B. Monitor the client's weight daily.
C. Offer a liquid supplement if the client refuses solid food.
D. Encourage the client to choose from a variety of food options.
Correct answer:
Providing small, frequent meals throughout the day is a crucial intervention when caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. This approach helps in gradually increasing caloric intake and meeting the client's nutritional needs. Offering large meals can be overwhelming and may contribute to anxiety in these clients. By providing small, frequent meals, the nurse supports the client in establishing a healthier eating pattern and aids in the restoration of adequate nutrition levels. Monitoring the client's weight daily (Choice B) may exacerbate anxiety related to body image and weight, which are common concerns in anorexia nervosa. Offering a liquid supplement if the client refuses solid food (Choice C) may not address the underlying issues related to food aversion and may not provide the necessary nutrients in a balanced way. Encouraging the client to choose from a variety of food options (Choice D) may be overwhelming for someone with anorexia nervosa and could lead to increased anxiety around food choices.
An involuntarily committed client is verbally abusive to the staff and repeatedly threatening to sue. The client records the full names and phone numbers of the staff. Which nursing action is most appropriate to decrease the possibility of a lawsuit?
A. Verbally redirect the client, and then limit one-on-one interaction.
B. Involve the hospitals security division as soon as possible.
C. Notify the client that documenting personal staff information is against hospital policy.
D. Continue professional attempts to establish a positive working relationship with the client.
Correct answer:
The most appropriate nursing action is to choose option C: Notify the client that documenting personal staff information is against hospital policy. This response is effective in addressing the situation because it clearly communicates boundaries to the client and informs them of the hospital's policy. By doing so, the client is made aware that their behavior is not acceptable and that there are consequences for violating the policy. This action also helps to protect the staff members' privacy and security.
Option A: Verbally redirect the client and then limit one-on-one interaction, may not effectively address the issue of the client recording personal staff information. Option B: Involve the hospital's security division as soon as possible, is a more drastic measure that may escalate the situation unnecessarily. Option D: Continue professional attempts to establish a positive working relationship with the client, is not appropriate in this scenario as the client's behavior is threatening and abusive.
A nurse had developed a plan of care for a patient with depression. Which nursing diagnosis would reflect the social domain?
A. Imbalanced Nutrition, Less Than Body Requirements related to lack of appetite.
B. Powerlessness related to feelings of lack of control over the situation.
C. Ineffective Role Performance related to inability to participate as family provider
D. Risk for Suicide related to depressed mood and feelings of oneself as a failure
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Ineffective Role Performance related to inability to participate as family provider. This nursing diagnosis reflects the social domain because it focuses on the patient's inability to fulfill their role as a family provider due to depression, which impacts their social functioning. This diagnosis addresses the patient's social interactions, relationships, and roles within the family unit.
Explanation:
1. Imbalanced Nutrition (A) is related to physical health and nutrition, not the social domain.
2. Powerlessness (B) is related to feelings of lack of control, not specifically tied to social interactions or roles.
3. Risk for Suicide (D) is related to the patient's safety and mental health, not directly addressing social functioning.
In summary, choice C is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the patient's social domain by focusing on their role within the family unit, while the other choices are more related to physical health, mental health, and personal feelings.
A nursing instructor is presenting content on the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act as it relates to their state. Which student statement indicates a need for further instruction?
A. The Nurse Practice Act provides a list of definitions of important terms, including the definition of nursing.
B. The Nurse Practice Act lists education requirements for licensure and reciprocity.
C. The Nurse Practice Act contains detailed statements that describe the scope of practice for registered nurses (RNs).
D. The Nurse Practice Act lists the general authority and powers of the state board of nursing.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because education requirements for licensure and reciprocity are typically not included in the Nurse Practice Act. The Act primarily focuses on defining the scope of practice, authority of the state board, regulations, and standards for nursing practice. Education requirements are usually outlined in separate regulations or guidelines by the state board of nursing or accrediting bodies. Therefore, if a student statement mentions education requirements as part of the Nurse Practice Act, it indicates a need for further instruction as it is not accurate.
A: This statement is correct as the Nurse Practice Act often includes definitions of important terms to provide clarity and understanding.
C: This statement is correct as the Act does describe the scope of practice for registered nurses to ensure safe and competent care.
D: This statement is correct as the Act typically outlines the general authority and powers of the state board of nursing to regulate and oversee nursing practice.
The nurse is employed by a long-term residential treatment center that provides care to a variety of patients with chronic mental disorders. Which role would the nurse primarily assume when working with these patients?
A. Therapist
B. Medication administrator
C. Mediator
D. Educator
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Educator. In a long-term residential treatment center for patients with chronic mental disorders, the nurse primarily assumes the role of an educator. The nurse educates patients about their conditions, treatment plans, medications, coping strategies, and self-care techniques. This helps empower patients to actively participate in their own care and improve their overall well-being.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Therapist - While nurses may provide therapeutic communication and support, their primary focus is not to provide therapy which is typically done by mental health professionals such as psychologists or counselors.
B: Medication administrator - While nurses do administer medications, it is not their primary role in working with patients with chronic mental disorders.
C: Mediator - While nurses may help facilitate communication and resolve conflicts, mediating is not their primary role in providing care to patients with chronic mental disorders.
Which of these statements about the peripheral nervous system is correct?
A. The CNs enter the brain through the spinal cord.
B. Efferent fibers carry sensory input to the central nervous system through the spinal cord.
C. The peripheral nerves are inside the central nervous system and carry impulses through their motor fibers.
D. The peripheral nerves carry input to the central nervous system by afferent fibers and away from the central nervous system by efferent fibers.
Correct answer:
Rationale for Correct Answer (D):
1. "The peripheral nerves carry input to the central nervous system by afferent fibers and away from the central nervous system by efferent fibers."
- This statement correctly describes the functions of afferent and efferent fibers in the peripheral nervous system.
- Afferent fibers transmit sensory information from the peripheral organs to the central nervous system.
- Efferent fibers transmit motor commands from the central nervous system to the peripheral organs.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: "The CNs enter the brain through the spinal cord."
- Incorrect because cranial nerves (CNs) directly connect to the brain, bypassing the spinal cord.
B: "Efferent fibers carry sensory input to the central nervous system through the spinal cord."
- Incorrect because efferent fibers carry motor commands away from the central nervous system, not sensory input towards it.
C: "The peripheral nerves are inside the central nervous system and carry impulses through their motor fibers
Emily is a 28-year-old nurse who works on a psychiatric unit. She is assigned to work with Jenna, a 27-year-old who was admitted with major depressive disorder. Emily and Jenna realize that they graduated from the same high school and each has a 2-year-old daughter. Emily and Jenna discuss getting together for a play date with their daughters after Jenna is discharged. This situation reflects:
A. Successful termination
B. Promoting interdependence
C. Boundary blurring
D. A strong therapeutic relationship
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Boundary blurring. This situation reflects boundary blurring because Emily, as a nurse, is crossing professional boundaries by engaging in a personal and social relationship with Jenna, her patient. This can lead to ethical concerns, compromised therapeutic effectiveness, and potential harm to both parties. It is important for healthcare professionals to maintain clear boundaries to uphold professionalism, trust, and the therapeutic nature of the nurse-patient relationship.
A: Successful termination is incorrect as it refers to the conclusion of the therapeutic relationship, which is not the case here.
B: Promoting interdependence is incorrect as it involves fostering mutual reliance and support between individuals, which is not the focus of the situation described.
D: A strong therapeutic relationship is incorrect as it describes a positive and therapeutic connection between a healthcare provider and patient, which is not the issue in this scenario due to boundary blurring.
Connor is a 28-year-old student, referred by his university for a psychiatric evaluation. He reports that he has no friends at the university and people call him a loner. Recently, Connor has been giving lectures to pigeons at the university fountains. Connor is diagnosed as schizotypal, which differs from schizophrenia in that persons diagnosed as schizotypal:
A. Can be made aware of their delusions
B. Are far more delusional than schizophrenics
C. Have a greater need for socialization
D. Do not usually respond to antipsychotic medications
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Can be made aware of their delusions. Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by odd behaviors and beliefs, but individuals with this disorder can maintain some awareness of their unusual thoughts. This is in contrast to schizophrenia, where individuals may have difficulty recognizing their delusions as false. Therefore, the ability to be made aware of their delusions sets schizotypal individuals apart from those with schizophrenia.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Are far more delusional than schizophrenics - This is incorrect as the severity of delusions can vary among individuals with different mental health disorders.
C: Have a greater need for socialization - This is incorrect as schizotypal individuals often struggle with social interactions and may prefer solitude.
D: Do not usually respond to antipsychotic medications - This is incorrect as individuals with schizotypal personality disorder may benefit from antipsychotic medications for symptom management.
A 67-year-old female smoker with a family history of high blood pressure and heart disease presents with acute onset neck pain, headache, and a blood pressure of 175/100 mm Hg. What should the physical therapist do FIRST?
A. Refer the patient for assessment by a physician.
B. Assume that this is a 'white coat' effect and continue with the usual examination.
C. Continue the examination but modify the order and extent of the tests.
D. Modify the examination to avoid manual therapy and offer simple exercises.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Refer the patient for assessment by a physician. Given the patient's age, smoking history, family history, and elevated blood pressure, there is a high likelihood of cardiovascular issues. As a physical therapist, it is crucial to prioritize patient safety and rule out any serious medical conditions before proceeding with any interventions. Referring the patient for immediate medical assessment allows for proper diagnosis and management of potential cardiovascular emergencies. This is the first and most important step to ensure the patient's well-being.
Other choices are incorrect because:
B: Assuming it is a 'white coat' effect overlooks the serious symptoms and risks associated with the patient's presentation.
C: Continuing the examination with modifications may delay necessary medical intervention and put the patient at risk.
D: Modifying the examination and avoiding manual therapy may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms and delay appropriate medical care.
A patient experiencing primary insomnia asks the nurse, I take a nap during the day. Doesn't that make up for a lost night's sleep? Select the nurse's best reply.
A. Circadian drives give daytime naps a structure different from nighttime sleep.
B. The body clock operates on a 24-hour cycle, making nap effectiveness unpredictable.
C. It is a matter of habit and expectation. We expect to be more refreshed from a night's sleep.
D. Sleep restores homeostasis but works more efficiently when aided by melatonin secreted at night.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Circadian drives refer to the body's internal clock regulating sleep-wake cycles.
2. Daytime naps disrupt this cycle, affecting the quality of nighttime sleep.
3. Nighttime sleep is essential for complete restorative functions like deep sleep stages.
4. Daytime naps may not provide the same physiological benefits as nighttime sleep.
5. Thus, the nurse's response highlights the structural differences between daytime naps and nighttime sleep, emphasizing the importance of prioritizing nighttime sleep for optimal rest and restoration.
Summary:
- Option B: While the body clock operates on a 24-hour cycle, it doesn't address the structural differences in sleep quality between daytime naps and nighttime sleep.
- Option C: Habit and expectation are factors, but the physiological differences between daytime naps and nighttime sleep are more crucial.
- Option D: While melatonin aids sleep, the focus here is on the structural differences between daytime naps and nighttime sleep.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 11 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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