You choose the therapeutic response, the safety priority, and the cue that means the patient is getting worse. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five mental health questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
During a grief-processing group, an elderly patient stated, “For the first time since my husband died, I’m having more good days than bad.” This statement suggests that the patient has:
A. Reached the phase of reestablishment
B. Determined she is ready to terminate the support group
C. Completed her “grief work” successfully
D. Replaced old memories with new ones.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Completed her “grief work” successfully
The correct answer is C: Completed her "grief work" successfully. This statement indicates progress in the grieving process, moving towards acceptance and healing. The patient acknowledging having more good days than bad reflects a positive shift in coping with the loss, indicating that she has processed her grief and is beginning to adapt to life without her husband. This suggests that the patient has worked through her emotions, memories, and adjustments related to the loss, reaching a point where she is experiencing more peace and acceptance.
Summary:
A: Reestablishment is not the correct choice as it does not specifically address the completion of the grief work.
B: Determining readiness to terminate the support group is premature, as the patient may still benefit from continued support.
D: Replacing old memories with new ones is not supported by the patient's statement and does not necessarily indicate successful grief processing.
Question 2
Upon taking the popliteal blood pressure of a patient with unilateral distal limb pain, the physical therapist notes that the popliteal pulse is easily palpable (compared to the nonsymptomatic side) and that the blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg (upper limb reading 145/90 mm Hg). Which one of the following pathologies should be ruled out before proceeding with the rest of the physical examination?
A. Deep venous thrombosis
B. Restless leg syndrome
C. Popliteal aneurysm
D. Femoral artery occlusion
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Popliteal aneurysm
The correct answer is C: Popliteal aneurysm. Popliteal aneurysm is a potentially serious condition that can lead to compression of surrounding structures, including the popliteal artery. In this case, the easily palpable popliteal pulse and the lower blood pressure in the affected lower limb suggest a potential obstruction or dilation of the popliteal artery, which could be indicative of a popliteal aneurysm. This condition needs to be ruled out urgently due to the risk of complications such as thrombosis or rupture.
Choice A: Deep venous thrombosis is unlikely in this case as there are no signs or symptoms suggestive of venous thrombosis, and the presence of a palpable pulse indicates arterial involvement.
Choice B: Restless leg syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by an uncontrollable urge to move the legs, and it does not present with the physical findings described in the scenario.
Choice D: Femoral artery occlusion is
Question 3
When performing a comprehensive geriatric assessment of an older adult, what aspect of the client should the nursing assessment focus on?
A. physical signs of aging
B. immunological function
C. functional abilities
D. chronic illness
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — functional abilities
The correct answer is C: functional abilities. A comprehensive geriatric assessment should focus on assessing the older adult's functional abilities to determine their ability to carry out activities of daily living independently. This is crucial in evaluating their overall health and quality of life. By assessing functional abilities, nurses can identify areas of impairment and develop appropriate interventions to maintain or improve the client's independence.
Physical signs of aging (Choice A) may provide some information about the client's health status, but focusing solely on this aspect may overlook important functional deficits. Immunological function (Choice B) is important but may not be the primary focus of a geriatric assessment unless specific health concerns are present. Chronic illness (Choice D) is also important to consider but does not encompass the holistic assessment of functional abilities needed in geriatric care.
Question 4
A nurse has been caring for a female client who has bruises on her arms that she explains are a result of physical abuse by her husband. The client states, 'I don't know how much longer I can take this, but I'm afraid he'll really hurt me if I leave.' Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Offer to speak to the client's husband regarding his abusive behavior.
B. Help the client to recognize the signs of escalation of abusive behavior.
C. Assist the client to identify personal behaviors that trigger abusive behavior.
D. Assist the client to report abusive behavior to the proper authority.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Assist the client to report abusive behavior to the proper authority.
The correct answer is D: Assist the client to report abusive behavior to the proper authority. This is the most appropriate intervention because it prioritizes the safety and well-being of the client. Reporting abusive behavior to the proper authority can help protect the client from further harm and connect her with resources and support services. It also empowers the client to take action to address the abusive situation.
Choice A is incorrect because involving the client's husband directly may escalate the situation and put the client at further risk. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on the client recognizing signs of escalation, rather than taking immediate action to address the abuse. Choice C is incorrect as it places the responsibility on the client to identify triggers, rather than addressing the abusive behavior directly. Reporting to the proper authority is the most effective and immediate intervention in cases of abuse.
Question 5
A nursing instructor is explaining the concept of the continuum of care to a group of students. Which of the following would the nurse include in this description?
A. Care provided in episodic intervals
B. System of care that focuses primarily on wellness
C. A single organization as responsible for care delivery
D. Integrated system spanning illness to wellness states
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Integrated system spanning illness to wellness states
The correct answer is D because the continuum of care refers to a seamless and integrated system that spans from illness to wellness states. This means that care is provided across different levels, from prevention to acute care to rehabilitation. This approach ensures that patients receive comprehensive care tailored to their needs at every stage of their health journey.
Choice A, care provided in episodic intervals, is incorrect because the continuum of care is continuous and not fragmented into separate episodes.
Choice B, a system of care that focuses primarily on wellness, is incorrect as it does not capture the comprehensive nature of the continuum of care, which includes all stages of health and illness.
Choice C, a single organization as responsible for care delivery, is incorrect because the continuum of care involves coordination and collaboration among multiple healthcare providers and settings to ensure holistic care.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
A patient has anorexia nervosa. The history shows the patient virtually stopped eating 5 months ago and lost 25% of body weight. The serum potassium is 2.7 mg/dL. Which nursing diagnosis applies?
A. Adult failure to thrive related to abuse of laxatives, as evidenced by electrolyte imbalances
B. Ineffective health maintenance related to self-induced vomiting, as evidenced by swollen parotid glands and hyperkalemia
C. Disturbed energy field related to physical exertion in excess of energy produced through caloric intake, as evidenced by weight loss and hyperkalemia
D. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat, as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to refusal to eat, as evidenced by loss of 25% of body weight and hypokalemia.
Rationale:
1. Imbalanced nutrition: The patient's history of virtually stopping eating and losing 25% of body weight indicates a lack of adequate nutrition intake.
2. Less than body requirements: The significant weight loss and prolonged period of decreased food intake support this nursing diagnosis.
3. Refusal to eat: The patient's behavior of stopping eating aligns with this diagnosis.
4. Loss of 25% of body weight: This is a critical indicator of severe malnutrition.
5. Hypokalemia: Low serum potassium levels (2.7 mg/dL) are associated with inadequate nutrition intake and support the diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition.
Summary:
A: Incorrect. The patient's history does not mention abuse of laxatives.
B: Incorrect. There is no mention of self-induced vomiting or
A patient asks, “What advantage does a durable power of attorney for health care have over a living will?” The nurse should reply, A durable power of attorney for health care:
A. Gives your agent authority to make decisions during any illness if you are incapacitated.
B. Can be given only to a relative, usually the next of kin, who has your best interests at heart.
C. Can be used only if you have a terminal illness and become incapacitated.
D. Cannot be implemented until 30 days after the documents are signed.
Correct answer:
Correct Answer: A: Gives your agent authority to make decisions during any illness if you are incapacitated.
Rationale:
1. A durable power of attorney for health care allows you to appoint a trusted individual (agent) to make medical decisions on your behalf if you are unable to do so.
2. This authority is not limited to a specific type of illness or condition, ensuring your agent can make decisions for any illness that renders you incapacitated.
3. This flexibility ensures that your wishes are carried out regardless of the circumstances.
Summary of Other Choices:
B: Incorrect - A durable power of attorney can be given to any trusted individual, not just a relative.
C: Incorrect - A durable power of attorney can be used in any situation where you are unable to make decisions, not just in terminal illness.
D: Incorrect - A durable power of attorney can be implemented immediately upon signing, providing timely decision-making support.
Parents of an adolescent diagnosed with a CD say, 'We don't know how to respond when our child breaks the rules in our house. Is there any treatment that might help us?' Which therapy is likely to be helpful for these parents?
A. Parent–child interaction therapy (PCIT)
B. Behavior modification therapy
C. Multi-systemic therapy (MST)
D. Pharmacotherapy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT). PCIT focuses on improving parent-child relationships and teaching parents effective behavior management techniques. It helps parents develop positive communication skills and appropriate discipline strategies. This therapy is likely to be helpful for parents of an adolescent with CD as it addresses the specific challenges they are facing in managing their child's behavior.
Summary:
B: Behavior modification therapy focuses on changing specific behaviors through reinforcement and punishment, but may not address the underlying parent-child relationship issues.
C: Multi-systemic therapy (MST) targets multiple systems involved in the adolescent's life, but may not provide the direct skills and support needed for parents in managing their child's behavior at home.
D: Pharmacotherapy involves medication and is not designed to help parents develop effective parenting skills.
A nursing student observes an incorrect dosage of medication being given to a client receiving electroconvulsive therapy. To implement the ethical principle of veracity, which action would the nursing student take?
A. Keep the information confidential to avoid harm to others.
B. Inform the student's instructor and the client's primary nurse and document the situation.
C. Tell only the client about the incident because the decision about actions would be determined only by the client.
D. Because the client was not harmed, the incident would not need to be reported.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B. By informing the student's instructor and the client's primary nurse, the nursing student upholds the ethical principle of veracity, which is being truthful and honest. This action ensures that the correct dosage of medication is administered to the client, preventing potential harm. Documenting the situation is essential for accurate record-keeping and accountability.
Choice A is incorrect because keeping the information confidential would go against the ethical principle of veracity and could potentially harm the client.
Choice C is incorrect as the decision about actions should involve healthcare professionals to ensure the client's safety and well-being, not solely the client.
Choice D is incorrect because even if the client was not harmed immediately, incorrect medication dosages could still have long-term consequences, making it crucial to report the incident for proper evaluation and prevention.
A nurse is reviewing information about a psychiatric medication that describes the amount of the drug that actually reaches systemic circulation unchanged. The nurse identifies this as which of the following?
A. First-pass effect
B. Bioavailability
C. Solubility
D. Biotransformation
Correct answer:
Bioavailability refers to the amount of a drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged after administration. It accounts for the fraction of the administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation in its active form. This is important in determining the drug's effectiveness. In this scenario, the nurse is reviewing information about the drug's actual systemic circulation, which aligns with the concept of bioavailability.
A: First-pass effect refers to the initial metabolism of a drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.
C: Solubility relates to a drug's ability to dissolve in a solvent, not the amount that reaches systemic circulation.
D: Biotransformation involves the conversion of a drug into metabolites, not the amount that reaches systemic circulation.
In summary, the correct answer is B (Bioavailability) because it directly addresses the amount of the drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged.
A nurse is leading a group in which members are encouraged to discuss their feelings and emotions. The group session is just starting when a patient stomps into the room, slams his notebook down on a table, and sits down. His affect is one of anger and hostility. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A. Keep the focus off the patient so his anger has time to de-escalate.
B. Suggest the patient make a private counseling appointment to address his anger issues.
C. Ask the patient to leave the group until he is calmer.
D. Encourage the patient to discuss his anger with the group.
Correct answer:
The correct response is D: Encourage the patient to discuss his anger with the group. This option promotes open communication, which can help the patient express and process his emotions in a supportive environment. By addressing the anger directly, the nurse can facilitate the patient's emotional expression and potentially uncover underlying issues contributing to his hostility. It also allows the group members to practice empathy and understanding towards the patient's emotions, fostering a sense of community and trust.
Option A: Keeping the focus off the patient may lead to avoidance of the issue and hinder potential therapeutic progress.
Option B: Suggesting private counseling may be beneficial but does not address the immediate situation or utilize the group dynamic for support.
Option C: Asking the patient to leave the group may escalate the situation and could isolate the patient further, potentially exacerbating his anger.
An 11-year-old diagnosed with ODD becomes angry over the rules at a residential treatment program and begins shouting at the nurse. What is the nurse's initial action to defuse the situation?
A. Say to the child, 'Tell me how you're feeling right now.'
B. Take the child swimming at the facility's pool.
C. Establish a behavioral contract with the child.
D. Administer an anxiolytic medication.
Correct answer:
The correct initial action for the nurse to defuse the situation with the 11-year-old diagnosed with ODD is to take the child swimming at the facility's pool (Choice B). This action can help the child release pent-up emotions through physical activity, providing a positive outlet for their anger. Swimming can also have a calming effect on the child's nervous system, promoting relaxation and reducing stress levels. By engaging in a fun and physical activity, the child may be able to regulate their emotions and behavior more effectively than discussing feelings or establishing a behavioral contract in the heat of the moment. Administering an anxiolytic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial response as it does not address the root cause of the behavior, and it is important to try non-pharmacological interventions first. Choices A and C may be helpful in the long term but are not as immediate or appropriate in this situation.
Which nursing intervention supports the principles on which the cross-links theory of aging is based?
A. Applying an elastin-sustaining moisturizer to an adult patient’s skin
B. Assessing a patient’s family history for genetic diseases and disorders
C. Questioning a patient about long-term exposure to environmental toxins
D. Assisting an adult patient in selecting foods high in vitamins A, C, and E
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because selecting foods high in vitamins A, C, and E supports the principles of the cross-links theory of aging, which focuses on the accumulation of damage from oxidative stress. Vitamins A, C, and E are antioxidants that help combat oxidative stress and reduce the formation of cross-links in tissues. This intervention can potentially slow down the aging process by reducing cellular damage.
Choice A is incorrect because applying an elastin-sustaining moisturizer does not directly address the oxidative stress aspect of the cross-links theory of aging.
Choice B is incorrect as assessing family history for genetic diseases does not specifically target the mechanisms involved in the cross-links theory of aging.
Choice C is incorrect because questioning about exposure to environmental toxins may be important for overall health but is not directly related to the principles of the cross-links theory of aging.
An 11-year-old diagnosed with ODD becomes angry over the rules at a residential treatment program and begins shouting at the nurse. What is the nurse's initial action to defuse the situation?
A. Say to the child, 'Tell me how you're feeling right now.'
B. Take the child swimming at the facility's pool.
C. Establish a behavioral contract with the child.
D. Administer an anxiolytic medication.
Correct answer:
The correct initial action for the nurse to defuse the situation with the 11-year-old diagnosed with ODD is to take the child swimming at the facility's pool (Choice B). This action can help the child release pent-up emotions through physical activity, providing a positive outlet for their anger. Swimming can also have a calming effect on the child's nervous system, promoting relaxation and reducing stress levels. By engaging in a fun and physical activity, the child may be able to regulate their emotions and behavior more effectively than discussing feelings or establishing a behavioral contract in the heat of the moment. Administering an anxiolytic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial response as it does not address the root cause of the behavior, and it is important to try non-pharmacological interventions first. Choices A and C may be helpful in the long term but are not as immediate or appropriate in this situation.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The nurse identifies that the patient is experiencing low energy, poor concentration, and feelings of hopelessness. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administering a sedative medication to help the patient rest
B. Providing reassurance that these feelings will pass
C. Encouraging the patient to engage in small activities and gradually increase participation
D. Promoting rest and limiting stimulation
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to engage in small activities and gradually increase participation aligns with the principles of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for depression. This intervention helps the patient combat feelings of hopelessness and low energy by promoting a sense of accomplishment and increasing activity levels. It also addresses poor concentration by breaking tasks into manageable steps.
Choice A is incorrect because administering a sedative medication does not address the underlying issues of depression and may mask symptoms temporarily without providing long-term benefits. Choice B is incorrect because while providing reassurance is important, it alone may not be sufficient to address the patient's symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because promoting rest and limiting stimulation may exacerbate feelings of isolation and further contribute to the patient's low energy and hopelessness.
RN exams mental health practice questions, set 23 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
