RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 26
RN exams · medical-surgical
RN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 26
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The newborn is having occasional gasping respirations with a heart rate of 90 beats per minute. Skin color is cyanotic with poor muscle tone. Interpreting relevant clinical data in this scenario, what problems are possible? Select all that apply.
A. The newborn is hypothermic.
B. The newborn is full term.
C. The newborn is experiencing respiratory distress.
D. The newborn is anemic.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — The newborn is experiencing respiratory distress.
The correct answer is C: The newborn is experiencing respiratory distress. Gasping respirations, low heart rate, cyanotic skin, and poor muscle tone are indicative of respiratory distress in a newborn. Gasping is an abnormal breathing pattern seen in severe respiratory distress. A low heart rate is a compensatory response to decreased oxygen levels. Cyanotic skin color indicates poor oxygenation. Poor muscle tone can be a sign of inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues.
Explanation for other choices:
A: The newborn may be hypothermic due to poor temperature regulation, but the primary concern in this scenario is respiratory distress.
B: Being full term does not directly explain the newborn's clinical presentation, so it is not a likely cause.
D: Anemia could contribute to poor oxygen delivery, but the clinical presentation suggests a more acute issue related to respiratory distress.
Question 2
A factory line worker has repetitive strain syndrome in the left elbow. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about
A. surgical options.
B. elbow injections.
C. wearing a left wrist splint.
D. modifying arm movements.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — modifying arm movements.
Correct Answer: D - Modifying arm movements
Rationale: Modifying arm movements is crucial in managing repetitive strain syndrome to prevent further damage and alleviate symptoms. This approach focuses on changing the way the worker performs tasks to reduce strain on the affected area. By teaching the patient how to adjust their movements, the nurse can help prevent exacerbation of symptoms and promote healing.
Summary:
A: Surgical options are not typically the first-line treatment for repetitive strain syndrome and are usually considered only when conservative measures have failed.
B: Elbow injections may provide temporary relief but do not address the root cause of the issue, which is repetitive strain from improper movements.
C: Wearing a left wrist splint may provide support but does not address the root cause of the issue, which is the strain on the elbow from repetitive movements.
Question 3
When assessing a suspicious skin lesion, you are looking for Aâ€â€asymmetry, Bâ€â€irregular borders, Câ€â€variegated colors, Dâ€â€diameter, and Eâ€â€:
A. Edema.
B. Erythema.
C. Elevation.
D. Ever-changing.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Ever-changing.
The correct answer is D: Ever-changing. When assessing a suspicious skin lesion, the feature of ever-changing is crucial as it indicates the possibility of malignancy or skin cancer. Skin lesions that evolve or change in size, shape, color, or symptoms over time are concerning and require further evaluation. This feature is important for early detection and prompt treatment of skin cancers.
A: Edema is not typically a characteristic feature of a suspicious skin lesion.
B: Erythema refers to redness of the skin and is not specific to assessing skin lesions for malignancy.
C: Elevation may or may not be present in a suspicious skin lesion and is not as significant as the feature of ever-changing.
In summary, the correct answer, D: Ever-changing, is crucial in assessing suspicious skin lesions for possible malignancy, while the other choices are not as indicative of skin cancer.
Question 4
The client being admitted to the oncology unit conveys his wishes regarding resuscitation in the event of cardiopulmonary arrest. The nurse advises the client that it would be in his best interest to obtain which document?
A. will
B. Proof of health care power of attorney
C. living wil l
D. proxy directive
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — living wil l
A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences and wishes regarding medical treatment, including resuscitation, in the event they become unable to communicate or make decisions. In this scenario, the client being admitted to the oncology unit wants to convey his wishes regarding resuscitation in case of cardiopulmonary arrest. A living will helps ensure that these wishes are known and respected by healthcare providers and loved ones. While a will addresses how a person's assets should be distributed after death and a health care power of attorney designates someone to make medical decisions on the person's behalf, a living will specifically focuses on healthcare preferences and treatment decisions. A proxy directive is similar to a health care power of attorney, designating someone to make healthcare decisions for the person if they are unable to do so themselves.
Question 5
Which of the following interventions is appropriate for managing a conscious patient with a severe nosebleed (epistaxis)?
A. Tilting the head back.
B. Pinching the soft part of the nose.
C. Packing the nose with cotton gauze.
D. Applying direct pressure to the forehead.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Pinching the soft part of the nose.
When managing a conscious patient with a severe nosebleed (epistaxis), the appropriate intervention is to have the patient sit upright and lean slightly forward to prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking or swallowing. Pinching the soft part of the nose just below the bony part can help apply pressure to the bleeding vessel and stop the bleeding. This maneuver also helps compress the blood vessels in the nose, promoting clot formation and stopping the bleeding. It is important not to tilt the head back as this can cause blood to flow into the throat and potentially lead to swallowing, choking, or aspiration. Packing the nose with cotton gauze should be done by medical professionals if the bleeding does not stop with direct pressure. Applying direct pressure to the forehead is not effective for managing nosebleeds; pressure should be applied to the nostrils instead.
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Question 6
A postpartum client who delivered a macrosomic infant expresses concerns about breastfeeding difficulties due to the baby's size. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to support successful breastfeeding in this situation?
A. Providing education on techniques to improve latch and milk transfer
B. Recommending supplemental formula feedings to ensure adequate nutrition
C. Encouraging the client to avoid breastfeeding to prevent discomfort
D. Referring the client to a lactation consultant for specialized support
Correct answer:
Providing education on techniques to improve latch and milk transfer should be prioritized to support successful breastfeeding in this situation. Newborns who are macrosomic (large for gestational age) may have difficulties latching due to their size and may require additional support to effectively breastfeed. By educating the postpartum client on proper latch techniques and milk transfer, the nurse can help optimize the breastfeeding experience for both the mother and baby. This intervention focuses on addressing the specific concerns related to the infant's size and aims to promote successful breastfeeding despite potential challenges. As such, recommending supplemental formula feedings, encouraging the client to avoid breastfeeding, or immediately referring to a lactation consultant may not directly address the immediate need for support in improving breastfeeding in this situation.
A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?
A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria
Correct answer:
Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.
After completing the health history, the nurse assessing the musculoskeletal system will begin by
A. having the patient move the extremities against resistance.
B. feeling for the presence of crepitus during joint movement.
C. observing the patient’s body build and muscle configuration.
D. checking active and passive range of motion for the extremities.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because observing the patient's body build and muscle configuration provides initial information about the patient's overall musculoskeletal health. This step allows the nurse to assess for any abnormalities, such as muscle atrophy or asymmetry, which can indicate underlying musculoskeletal issues. It also helps in identifying any deformities or structural abnormalities.
Choice A is incorrect because having the patient move the extremities against resistance comes later in the assessment process to evaluate muscle strength. Choice B is incorrect as feeling for crepitus during joint movement is a specific assessment for joint health and does not address the overall musculoskeletal system. Choice D is incorrect as checking active and passive range of motion for the extremities is typically done after observing the patient's body build and muscle configuration.
On the first postpartum day, a primiparous patient complains of perineal pain that was unrelieved by Ibuprofen 400 mg given two hours ago. Nurse Kayla should assess for which of the following?
A. Vaginal laceration
B. History of Drug Abuse
C. Perineal hematoma
D. Puerperal infection
Correct answer:
In a primiparous patient who complains of unrelieved perineal pain on the first postpartum day, Nurse Kayla should assess for a perineal hematoma. A perineal hematoma is a collection of blood in the perineal tissues and can cause significant pain and discomfort. It can be a result of trauma during delivery or due to a blood vessel rupture. This condition requires prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications such as infection or excessive bleeding. Vaginal laceration would typically be identified during the delivery process and would have been repaired by the healthcare provider. History of drug abuse, while important to know for overall patient care, is not as relevant in this immediate postpartum pain assessment. Puerperal infection usually presents with other signs such as fever, foul-smelling discharge, and uterine tenderness, which are not mentioned in this scenario.
A patient who has severe refractory psoriasis on the face, neck, and extremities is socially withdrawn because of the appearance of the lesions. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Discuss the possibility of enrolling in a worker-retraining program.
B. Encourage the patient to volunteer to work on community projects.
C. Suggest that the patient use cosmetics to cover the psoriatic lesions.
D. Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Ask the patient to describe the impact of psoriasis on quality of life. This is the first action the nurse should take to understand the patient's perspective, feelings, and how psoriasis is affecting their daily life. By doing so, the nurse can assess the severity of the social withdrawal and emotional impact, which can guide further interventions.
Choice A is incorrect because enrolling in a worker-retraining program does not address the immediate social withdrawal and emotional impact due to psoriasis.
Choice B is incorrect as encouraging the patient to volunteer for community projects may not be suitable or effective in addressing the patient's current emotional distress.
Choice C is incorrect because suggesting cosmetics to cover the lesions only focuses on the physical appearance and does not address the underlying emotional and social issues.
The nurse is aware that a major difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non- Hodgkin's lymphoma is that:_________________
A. Hodgkin's lymphoma occurs only in young adults
B. Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable
C. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs
D. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is treated only with radiation therapy
Correct answer:
One of the major differences between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is that Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable, while non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is typically not curable. Hodgkin's lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are not found in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Additionally, Hodgkin's lymphoma tends to spread in a more orderly and predictable manner through the lymph nodes, making it easier to treat and potentially cure with the appropriate combination of chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and stem cell transplant. On the other hand, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is a diverse group of lymphomas that can vary greatly in presentation, behavior, and response to treatment, with some subtypes being more aggressive and resistant to treatment. Therefore, the potential for cure is higher in Hodgkin's lymphoma compared to non-Hodgkin's lymph
After completing the health history, the nurse assessing the musculoskeletal system will begin by
A. having the patient move the extremities against resistance.
B. feeling for the presence of crepitus during joint movement.
C. observing the patient’s body build and muscle configuration.
D. checking active and passive range of motion for the extremities.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C because observing the patient's body build and muscle configuration provides initial information about the patient's overall musculoskeletal health. This step allows the nurse to assess for any abnormalities, such as muscle atrophy or asymmetry, which can indicate underlying musculoskeletal issues. It also helps in identifying any deformities or structural abnormalities.
Choice A is incorrect because having the patient move the extremities against resistance comes later in the assessment process to evaluate muscle strength. Choice B is incorrect as feeling for crepitus during joint movement is a specific assessment for joint health and does not address the overall musculoskeletal system. Choice D is incorrect as checking active and passive range of motion for the extremities is typically done after observing the patient's body build and muscle configuration.
Which of the functions of the skin is defined as 'water, electrolytes, and nitrogenous wastes are excreted in small amounts of sweat'
A. Protection
B. Sensation
C. Regulation
D. Elimination
Correct answer:
Elimination,' as this function describes the skin's role in excreting water, electrolytes, and nitrogenous wastes through sweat. Sweat glands produce sweat, a mixture containing these substances, aiding in waste removal and electrolyte balance, albeit in small amounts compared to kidneys. 'Protection' refers to the skin's barrier against pathogens and injury, not excretion. 'Sensation' involves nerve endings detecting stimuli, unrelated to waste. 'Regulation' covers temperature control via sweating or vasoconstriction, but the question specifies excretion, not thermoregulation. Elimination uniquely fits, as it's a recognized skin function in physiology, crucial for nursing knowledge in fluid balance and patient assessment e.g., excessive sweating might signal electrolyte loss. This specificity distinguishes 'Elimination' as the precise answer, aligning with the skin's excretory role.
Which of the following early contributors to the development of immunology is paired up properly with his or her accomplishment?
A. Louis Pasteur: demonstrated that cowpox vaccination can protect from smallpox
B. Paul Ehrlich: identified lymphocytes as the cells mediating adaptive immunity
C. MacFarlane Burnet: proposed the side-chain theory of antibodies which suggested that multiple antigen receptors are expressed on immune cells
D. Robert Koch: developed techniques to grow pure bacterial cultures
Correct answer:
Rationale: Robert Koch is correctly paired with developing techniques to grow pure bacterial cultures. Koch's work laid the foundation for bacteriology and allowed for the isolation and identification of specific disease-causing bacteria. This technique, known as Koch's postulates, revolutionized the field of microbiology by linking specific pathogens to specific diseases.
Summary:
A: Louis Pasteur - Incorrect. While Pasteur is known for his work in vaccination and pasteurization, the provided accomplishment is associated with Edward Jenner, not Pasteur.
B: Paul Ehrlich - Incorrect. Ehrlich is known for his work on immunology and coined the term "magic bullet," but he did not identify lymphocytes as cells mediating adaptive immunity.
C: MacFarlane Burnet - Incorrect. Burnet is known for his clonal selection theory, not the side-chain theory of antibodies as described in the choice.
When a bird is transferred from 30ºC to 10ºC, its body temperature-
A. Is maintained at original level due to increased dissipation of heat
B. Declines due to increased dissipation of heat
C. Rises above normal due to increased production and conservation of heat
D. Remain at original constant level due to increased conservation and production of heat
Correct answer:
Step 1: When a bird is transferred to a colder environment (10ºC), its body temperature tends to drop.
Step 2: To maintain its body temperature, the bird needs to conserve and produce more heat internally.
Step 3: This increased conservation and production of heat help the bird to keep its body temperature at the original constant level.
Step 4: Therefore, option D is correct as it accurately describes the physiological response of a bird to a decrease in environmental temperature.
Summary:
Option A is incorrect because dissipation of heat does not maintain the body temperature but rather leads to a decline. Option B is incorrect as it suggests a decline without considering the bird's ability to regulate its temperature. Option C is incorrect as increased production and conservation of heat would not result in a rise above normal body temperature in response to a colder environment.
RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 26 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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