RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 21
RN exams · medical-surgical
RN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 21
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A client has just received the diagnosis of malignant melanoma, stage 3B. He asks the nurse what this means. The nurse should respond relaying which of the following information? Select all that apply.
A. Malignant melanoma is a very rapid growing, aggressive cancer.
B. This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize.
C. This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area.
D. Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B).
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Malignant melanoma is a very rapid growing, aggressive cancer.
The correct answer is A because malignant melanoma is indeed a very rapid growing and aggressive cancer. This information is crucial for the client to understand the seriousness of the diagnosis and the need for prompt and aggressive treatment.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
B: This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize - This statement is incorrect because malignant melanoma is known to have a high potential for metastasis.
C: This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area - This statement is incorrect because melanoma can occur on any part of the body, not just limited to the head and neck.
D: Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B) - While this choice provides some accurate information about the staging of the cancer, it does not fully address the client's question about the nature of malignant melanoma.
Question 2
A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops difficulty swallowing and breathing. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
D. Myasthenia gravis
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
A. Open-angle glaucoma
B. Closed-angle glaucoma
C. Age-related macular degeneration
D. Diabetic retinopathy
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Open-angle glaucoma
The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.
Question 4
What is a skin graft that is used to transfer skin and subcutaneous tissue to large areas of deep tissue destruction called?
A. Skin flap
B. Free graft
C. Soft tissue extension
D. Free graft with vascular anastomoses
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Skin flap
Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Skin flap):
1. A skin flap involves transferring skin and subcutaneous tissue to repair extensive tissue loss.
2. Skin flaps have a direct blood supply, ensuring better survival in large areas of deep tissue destruction.
3. The term "skin graft" usually refers to a procedure where skin is transplanted without its own blood supply.
4. Therefore, a skin flap, with its vascular supply intact, is the appropriate choice.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Free graft - Incorrect because free grafts lack a direct blood supply and are more suitable for smaller areas.
C: Soft tissue extension - Incorrect as it does not specifically describe the technique of transferring skin and subcutaneous tissue.
D: Free graft with vascular anastomoses - Incorrect as this refers to a different technique involving connecting blood vessels, not commonly used for large areas of deep tissue destruction.
Question 5
A teenaged male patient who is on a wrestling team is examined by the nurse in the clinic. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of pediculosis?
A. Ring - like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp
B. Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft
C. Patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas
D. Red, hive - like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft
The correct answer is B because papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft are characteristic of pediculosis (lice infestation). The white deposits are lice eggs (nits) attached to the hair shaft, indicating the presence of lice. This finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of lice. Sharing headgear can facilitate the transmission of lice from one person to another.
Choice A is incorrect as ring-like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp are more indicative of ringworm (tinea capitis), a fungal infection, not pediculosis.
Choice C is incorrect as patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas are more indicative of scalp folliculitis or herpes zoster, not pediculosis.
Choice D is incorrect as red, hive-like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders are
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Question 6
A patient presents with hoarseness, dysphonia, and occasional throat pain. Direct laryngoscopy reveals vocal cord nodules. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing this condition?
A. Vocal cord polypectomy
B. Vocal cord injection with corticosteroids
C. Voice therapy and vocal hygiene education
D. Partial laryngectomy
Correct answer:
Vocal cord nodules are benign growths on the vocal cords, typically caused by vocal abuse or misuse. The most appropriate intervention for managing vocal cord nodules is voice therapy and vocal hygiene education. Voice therapy aims to correct vocal habits and techniques that contribute to the formation of nodules, while vocal hygiene education focuses on maintaining vocal health through proper hydration, rest, and avoiding behaviors that strain the vocal cords. These interventions have been shown to be effective in reducing and eliminating vocal cord nodules without the need for surgical intervention. Surgery, such as vocal cord polypectomy or injection with corticosteroids, is typically reserved for cases that do not respond to conservative management or if there are significant complications. Partial laryngectomy is a more extensive surgical procedure that is not typically indicated for vocal cord nodules.
A 29-year-old male is brought to the ED after being involved in a motor vehicular collision when his car struck a bridge abutment. He is intoxicated, has GCS 13, and complains of abdominal pain. His BP was 80mmHg systolic by palpation on admission, but rapidly increased to 110/70 with the administration of IV flui His heart rate is 120/min. The chest x-ray shows loss of aortic knob, widening of mediastinum, no rib fracture, and no hemopneumothorax. Contrast angiography:
A. "Is not indicated"
B. Should be performed after CT scan of the chest
C. Is positive for aortic rupture in 80% of similar cases
D. Is not necessary if the CT-scan of the chest is normal
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Is not necessary if the CT-scan of the chest is normal.
Rationale:
1. The patient presents with signs of possible aortic injury (e.g., widened mediastinum) after a high-speed motor vehicle collision.
2. CT scan of the chest is a sensitive imaging modality for detecting aortic injuries.
3. If the CT scan of the chest is normal, it effectively rules out aortic injury in this scenario.
4. Performing contrast angiography would be unnecessary if the initial CT scan is normal, as it would not provide additional diagnostic value and expose the patient to further risks.
Summary:
A: "Is not indicated" - Incorrect, as imaging is necessary to assess for aortic injury in this high-risk scenario.
B: Should be performed after CT scan of the chest - Incorrect, as contrast angiography is not necessary if the CT scan is normal.
C: Is positive for aortic rupture in 80% of similar cases -
Edward, a newborn delivered at 41 weeks' gestation, weighs 10 lb 4 oz. Vaginal delivery for this G1P1 mother was assisted with forceps. The nurse is completing her assessment and notes a sharply demarcated swelling over the parietal bones. The occipital and frontal skull bones are not affected. The neck does not appear edematous and is soft to the touch with full mobility. The infant is awake and active and has been breast-feeding well. What is the most probable cause of the swelling?
A. cephalohematoma
B. subgaleal hemorrhage
C. caput succedaneum
D. skull fracture
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: cephalohematoma. Cephalohematoma is a subperiosteal collection of blood that occurs due to trauma during delivery, such as with forceps assistance. The swelling is sharply demarcated because it is bound by suture lines of the skull bones. In this case, the parietal bones are affected, while the other skull bones are not involved. The absence of edema in the neck and the infant's good activity and feeding suggest no significant underlying issues.
Summary:
B: Subgaleal hemorrhage involves bleeding into the potential space between the periosteum and the skull, resulting in diffuse swelling extending beyond suture lines.
C: Caput succedaneum is soft tissue swelling that crosses suture lines and involves the scalp, not just the parietal bones.
D: Skull fracture would present with additional signs such as crepitus, misshapen skull, or neurological deficits, which are not mentioned
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, and halitosis. Nasal endoscopy reveals a foul-smelling, yellowish discharge draining from the middle meatus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
A. Chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Nasal vestibulitis
D. Adenoid hypertrophy
Correct answer:
The patient's presentation of recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, halitosis, and foul-smelling, yellowish discharge from the middle meatus is highly suggestive of chronic rhinosinusitis. The presence of nasal polyps further supports this diagnosis. Chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps is characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses, leading to symptoms such as nasal congestion, postnasal drip, cough, and a reduced sense of smell. The yellowish discharge and foul odor are typical findings in cases of chronic rhinosinusitis with secondary bacterial infection. Nasal endoscopy may reveal edematous nasal mucosa and polyps obstructing the middle meatus, contributing to the symptoms described by the patient. Management typically involves a combination of medical therapies such as intranasal corticosteroids, saline irrigation, and antibiotics, and in some cases, surgical intervention
A client has just received the diagnosis of malignant melanoma, stage 3B. He asks the nurse what this means. The nurse should respond relaying which of the following information? Select all that apply.
A. Malignant melanoma is a very rapid growing, aggressive cancer.
B. This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize.
C. This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area.
D. Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B).
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because malignant melanoma is indeed a very rapid growing and aggressive cancer. This information is crucial for the client to understand the seriousness of the diagnosis and the need for prompt and aggressive treatment.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
B: This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize - This statement is incorrect because malignant melanoma is known to have a high potential for metastasis.
C: This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area - This statement is incorrect because melanoma can occur on any part of the body, not just limited to the head and neck.
D: Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B) - While this choice provides some accurate information about the staging of the cancer, it does not fully address the client's question about the nature of malignant melanoma.
What is the main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?
A. Recruitment of neutrophils
B. Phagocytosis activation
C. Lysis of pathogens
D. Enhancing cytokine production
Correct answer:
The main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) is to lyse pathogens by creating pores in their cell membranes. First, MAC assembles on the pathogen's surface. Then, it forms a pore, disrupting the pathogen's membrane integrity, leading to cell lysis. This mechanism is crucial for the immune system to effectively eliminate pathogens.
Choice A (Recruitment of neutrophils) is incorrect because MAC is not involved in recruiting neutrophils. Neutrophil recruitment is typically mediated by other signaling molecules.
Choice B (Phagocytosis activation) is incorrect as MAC does not directly activate phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is a separate process involving the engulfment of pathogens by immune cells.
Choice D (Enhancing cytokine production) is incorrect because MAC does not directly enhance cytokine production. Cytokine production is mainly regulated by other immune cells and signaling pathways.
What is the main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?
A. Recruitment of neutrophils
B. Phagocytosis activation
C. Lysis of pathogens
D. Enhancing cytokine production
Correct answer:
The main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) is to lyse pathogens by creating pores in their cell membranes. First, MAC assembles on the pathogen's surface. Then, it forms a pore, disrupting the pathogen's membrane integrity, leading to cell lysis. This mechanism is crucial for the immune system to effectively eliminate pathogens.
Choice A (Recruitment of neutrophils) is incorrect because MAC is not involved in recruiting neutrophils. Neutrophil recruitment is typically mediated by other signaling molecules.
Choice B (Phagocytosis activation) is incorrect as MAC does not directly activate phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is a separate process involving the engulfment of pathogens by immune cells.
Choice D (Enhancing cytokine production) is incorrect because MAC does not directly enhance cytokine production. Cytokine production is mainly regulated by other immune cells and signaling pathways.
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute pancreatitis with severe abdominal pain and elevated pancreatic enzymes. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's pancreatitis?
A. Administer intravenous fluids to maintain adequate hydration.
B. Perform an abdominal ultrasound to assess pancreatic morphology.
C. Implement total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to meet nutritional needs.
D. Recommend proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for gastric acid suppression.
Correct answer:
The priority intervention in managing acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids to maintain adequate hydration. Acute pancreatitis can lead to significant fluid loss and dehydration due to factors such as vomiting and third-spacing of fluids into the retroperitoneal space. Adequate hydration helps to optimize perfusion to the pancreas, prevent hypovolemic shock, and support overall organ function. This intervention also aids in flushing out inflammatory mediators and preventing complications such as acute kidney injury. Monitoring fluid status and adjusting the rate of intravenous fluid administration based on the patient's response is crucial in the management of acute pancreatitis. While other interventions such as imaging studies, nutritional support, and gastric acid suppression may be important in managing acute pancreatitis, ensuring adequate hydration is the most critical initial step.
Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care after a patient with a right femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied?
A. Avoid placing the patient in prone position.
B. Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort.
C. Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks.
D. Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort. This is important because the patient with a hip spica cast may experience pressure on the abdomen, leading to potential abdominal discomfort or complications. It is crucial to monitor for signs of abdominal issues promptly.
A: Avoid placing the patient in prone position - While this is generally a good practice to prevent pressure ulcers, it is not directly related to the specific concern of abdominal discomfort in this scenario.
C: Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks - While bed rest may be necessary for a period, it is not directly addressing the potential issue of abdominal discomfort from the spica cast.
D: Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient - While repositioning the patient is important, the primary concern in this situation is monitoring for abdominal discomfort, not repositioning the patient.
A patient has been diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia. The patient is to begin taking interferon alfa 2b. What will the nurse include in her instructions to the patient concerning this drug?
A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.
B. Continue to maintain maximal physical activity.
C. Increase fluid intake while taking the drug.
D. Treat constipation with over-the-counter laxatives.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Increase fluid intake while taking the drug. Interferon alfa 2b can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, chills, and muscle aches, leading to dehydration. Increasing fluid intake helps to prevent dehydration and supports the body's ability to manage these side effects.
A: Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug - Although it is generally recommended to limit alcohol consumption while taking medications, this is not specifically related to interferon alfa 2b.
B: Continue to maintain maximal physical activity - Excessive physical activity may exacerbate the flu-like symptoms caused by interferon alfa 2b, so it is advisable to avoid overexertion.
D: Treat constipation with over-the-counter laxatives - Constipation is not a common side effect of interferon alfa 2b, so using over-the-counter laxatives may not be necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.
RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 21 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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