RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 21

RN exams · medical-surgical

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 21

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A client has just received the diagnosis of malignant melanoma, stage 3B. He asks the nurse what this means. The nurse should respond relaying which of the following information? Select all that apply.

  1. A. Malignant melanoma is a very rapid growing, aggressive cancer.
  2. B. This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize.
  3. C. This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area.
  4. D. Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B).
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Malignant melanoma is a very rapid growing, aggressive cancer.

The correct answer is A because malignant melanoma is indeed a very rapid growing and aggressive cancer. This information is crucial for the client to understand the seriousness of the diagnosis and the need for prompt and aggressive treatment. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: B: This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize - This statement is incorrect because malignant melanoma is known to have a high potential for metastasis. C: This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area - This statement is incorrect because melanoma can occur on any part of the body, not just limited to the head and neck. D: Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B) - While this choice provides some accurate information about the staging of the cancer, it does not fully address the client's question about the nature of malignant melanoma.

Question 2

A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops difficulty swallowing and breathing. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

  1. A. Parkinson's disease
  2. B. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
  3. C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
  4. D. Myasthenia gravis
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

The symptoms described are classic for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. Patients typically present with weakness, muscle atrophy, fasciculations (muscle twitching), and eventually develop difficulty swallowing and breathing due to involvement of the muscles responsible for these functions. Parkinson's disease (Choice A) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia but does not typically present with muscle atrophy or fasciculations as described in the case. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (Choice B) is an acute inflammatory condition affecting peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis, which is usually reversible. Myasthenia gravis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disorder that affects neu

Question 3

A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

  1. A. Open-angle glaucoma
  2. B. Closed-angle glaucoma
  3. C. Age-related macular degeneration
  4. D. Diabetic retinopathy
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Open-angle glaucoma

The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.

Question 4

What is a skin graft that is used to transfer skin and subcutaneous tissue to large areas of deep tissue destruction called?

  1. A. Skin flap
  2. B. Free graft
  3. C. Soft tissue extension
  4. D. Free graft with vascular anastomoses
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Skin flap

Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Skin flap): 1. A skin flap involves transferring skin and subcutaneous tissue to repair extensive tissue loss. 2. Skin flaps have a direct blood supply, ensuring better survival in large areas of deep tissue destruction. 3. The term "skin graft" usually refers to a procedure where skin is transplanted without its own blood supply. 4. Therefore, a skin flap, with its vascular supply intact, is the appropriate choice. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Free graft - Incorrect because free grafts lack a direct blood supply and are more suitable for smaller areas. C: Soft tissue extension - Incorrect as it does not specifically describe the technique of transferring skin and subcutaneous tissue. D: Free graft with vascular anastomoses - Incorrect as this refers to a different technique involving connecting blood vessels, not commonly used for large areas of deep tissue destruction.

Question 5

A teenaged male patient who is on a wrestling team is examined by the nurse in the clinic. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of pediculosis?

  1. A. Ring - like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp
  2. B. Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft
  3. C. Patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas
  4. D. Red, hive - like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft

The correct answer is B because papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft are characteristic of pediculosis (lice infestation). The white deposits are lice eggs (nits) attached to the hair shaft, indicating the presence of lice. This finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of lice. Sharing headgear can facilitate the transmission of lice from one person to another. Choice A is incorrect as ring-like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp are more indicative of ringworm (tinea capitis), a fungal infection, not pediculosis. Choice C is incorrect as patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas are more indicative of scalp folliculitis or herpes zoster, not pediculosis. Choice D is incorrect as red, hive-like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders are

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Question 6

A patient presents with hoarseness, dysphonia, and occasional throat pain. Direct laryngoscopy reveals vocal cord nodules. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing this condition?

  1. A. Vocal cord polypectomy
  2. B. Vocal cord injection with corticosteroids
  3. C. Voice therapy and vocal hygiene education
  4. D. Partial laryngectomy
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Question 7

A 29-year-old male is brought to the ED after being involved in a motor vehicular collision when his car struck a bridge abutment. He is intoxicated, has GCS 13, and complains of abdominal pain. His BP was 80mmHg systolic by palpation on admission, but rapidly increased to 110/70 with the administration of IV flui His heart rate is 120/min. The chest x-ray shows loss of aortic knob, widening of mediastinum, no rib fracture, and no hemopneumothorax. Contrast angiography:

  1. A. "Is not indicated"
  2. B. Should be performed after CT scan of the chest
  3. C. Is positive for aortic rupture in 80% of similar cases
  4. D. Is not necessary if the CT-scan of the chest is normal
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Question 8

Edward, a newborn delivered at 41 weeks' gestation, weighs 10 lb 4 oz. Vaginal delivery for this G1P1 mother was assisted with forceps. The nurse is completing her assessment and notes a sharply demarcated swelling over the parietal bones. The occipital and frontal skull bones are not affected. The neck does not appear edematous and is soft to the touch with full mobility. The infant is awake and active and has been breast-feeding well. What is the most probable cause of the swelling?

  1. A. cephalohematoma
  2. B. subgaleal hemorrhage
  3. C. caput succedaneum
  4. D. skull fracture
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Question 9

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of postnasal drip, chronic cough, and halitosis. Nasal endoscopy reveals a foul-smelling, yellowish discharge draining from the middle meatus. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

  1. A. Chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps
  2. B. Allergic rhinitis
  3. C. Nasal vestibulitis
  4. D. Adenoid hypertrophy
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Question 10

A client has just received the diagnosis of malignant melanoma, stage 3B. He asks the nurse what this means. The nurse should respond relaying which of the following information? Select all that apply.

  1. A. Malignant melanoma is a very rapid growing, aggressive cancer.
  2. B. This cancer usually extends wide and deep but rarely metastasize.
  3. C. This cancer is mainly contained to the head and neck area.
  4. D. Your cancer has grown into the deep tissues and quite likely into lymph nodes (stage 3B).
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Question 11

What is the main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?

  1. A. Recruitment of neutrophils
  2. B. Phagocytosis activation
  3. C. Lysis of pathogens
  4. D. Enhancing cytokine production
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Question 12

What is the main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?

  1. A. Recruitment of neutrophils
  2. B. Phagocytosis activation
  3. C. Lysis of pathogens
  4. D. Enhancing cytokine production
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Question 13

A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute pancreatitis with severe abdominal pain and elevated pancreatic enzymes. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's pancreatitis?

  1. A. Administer intravenous fluids to maintain adequate hydration.
  2. B. Perform an abdominal ultrasound to assess pancreatic morphology.
  3. C. Implement total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to meet nutritional needs.
  4. D. Recommend proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for gastric acid suppression.
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Question 14

Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care after a patient with a right femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied?

  1. A. Avoid placing the patient in prone position.
  2. B. Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort.
  3. C. Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks.
  4. D. Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient.
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Question 15

A patient has been diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia. The patient is to begin taking interferon alfa 2b. What will the nurse include in her instructions to the patient concerning this drug?

  1. A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug.
  2. B. Continue to maintain maximal physical activity.
  3. C. Increase fluid intake while taking the drug.
  4. D. Treat constipation with over-the-counter laxatives.
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About these RN exams medical-surgical questions

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 21 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

Keep going past these 15 questions

Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.