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RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 18

RN exams · medical-surgical

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 18

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

The dermis contains which of the following?

  1. A. blood vessels
  2. B. sweat glands
  3. C. sensory nerve endings
  4. D. sebaceous glands
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — blood vessels

The dermis contains blood vessels, among other structures, making it a complex layer. Its papillary region has capillaries nourishing the epidermis, while the reticular layer hosts larger vessels for circulation and thermoregulation. Sweat glands, originating in the epidermis, extend into the dermis, releasing sweat through ducts. Sensory nerve endings, like Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles, detect touch and pressure, abundant in the dermis. Sebaceous glands, also epidermal-derived, reside in the dermis, secreting sebum into hair follicles. All listed elements vessels, glands, and nerves are present, but the question seeks one correct answer, often emphasizing blood vessels for their prominence in dermal function. Their role in nutrient delivery and heat exchange underscores the dermis's vascularity, a feature visible in histological sections and critical to skin physiology, distinguishing it from the avascular epidermis.

Question 2

The dermis contains which of the following?

  1. A. blood vessels
  2. B. sweat glands
  3. C. sensory nerve endings
  4. D. sebaceous glands
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — blood vessels

The dermis contains blood vessels, among other structures, making it a complex layer. Its papillary region has capillaries nourishing the epidermis, while the reticular layer hosts larger vessels for circulation and thermoregulation. Sweat glands, originating in the epidermis, extend into the dermis, releasing sweat through ducts. Sensory nerve endings, like Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles, detect touch and pressure, abundant in the dermis. Sebaceous glands, also epidermal-derived, reside in the dermis, secreting sebum into hair follicles. All listed elements vessels, glands, and nerves are present, but the question seeks one correct answer, often emphasizing blood vessels for their prominence in dermal function. Their role in nutrient delivery and heat exchange underscores the dermis's vascularity, a feature visible in histological sections and critical to skin physiology, distinguishing it from the avascular epidermis.

Question 3

Which activity can the nurse working in the outpatient clinic delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

  1. A. Administer patch testing to a patient with allergic dermatitis.
  2. B. Interview a new patient about chronic health problems and allergies.
  3. C. Apply a sterile dressing after the health care provider excises a mole.
  4. D. Teach a patient about site care after a punch biopsy of an upper arm lesion.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Administer patch testing to a patient with allergic dermatitis.

The correct answer is A because administering patch testing is a technical task that an LPN/LVN is qualified to perform. LPNs/LVNs are trained in basic patient care and medication administration. Patch testing involves applying allergens to a patient's skin to determine allergic reactions. This task does not require advanced assessment or critical thinking skills. Choice B involves interviewing a new patient about chronic health problems and allergies, which requires comprehensive assessment and critical thinking abilities typically performed by a registered nurse (RN). Choice C involves applying a sterile dressing after a medical procedure, which requires a higher level of assessment and critical thinking beyond the scope of an LPN/LVN. Choice D involves patient education after a medical procedure, which also requires a more advanced level of nursing assessment and critical thinking typically performed by an RN.

Question 4

Which tissue is located in the region labelled '2'?

  1. A. Reticular connective tissue
  2. B. Areolar connective tissue
  3. C. Stratified squamous epithelium
  4. D. Cartilage and blood
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Areolar connective tissue

The correct answer is B: Areolar connective tissue. In the image, region '2' appears loose and has fibroblasts, collagen fibers, and elastic fibers, typical of areolar connective tissue. Areolar tissue is a loose connective tissue that provides support and elasticity. Rationale: 1. Areolar connective tissue is characterized by loose arrangement of cells and fibers, providing support and elasticity. 2. Presence of fibroblasts, collagen fibers, and elastic fibers in region '2' matches the characteristics of areolar connective tissue. 3. Areolar tissue is commonly found beneath the epithelial layers and around blood vessels and organs, supporting the body and connecting different tissues. Summary: A: Reticular connective tissue is more densely packed with reticular fibers and is found in organs like the spleen and lymph nodes. C: Stratified squamous epithelium is a type of epithelial tissue, which is not seen in region '2'.

Question 5

A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The client's assessment findings include anxiousness, dyspnea at rest, crackles, blood pressure 110/79 mm Hg, and apical heart rate 112/min. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

  1. A. Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.
  2. B. Place the client in high-Fowler's position with their legs in a dependent position
  3. C. Give the client sublingual nitroglycerin
  4. D. Administer morphine sulfate IV
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask.

The correct answer is A: Provide the client with supplemental oxygen at 5 L/min via facemask. In cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Supplemental oxygen helps increase oxygen levels and alleviate respiratory distress, reducing the workload on the heart. This intervention addresses the client's dyspnea and anxiousness by improving oxygen delivery. Choice B is incorrect as placing the client in high-Fowler's position with legs in a dependent position can help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for oxygenation. Choice C is incorrect as sublingual nitroglycerin is typically used for angina and not the priority intervention for cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Choice D is incorrect as morphine sulfate IV may be indicated for pain relief and anxiety, but it is not the priority intervention to address the client's oxygenation needs in cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

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Question 6

A patient with a history of coronary artery disease is prescribed aspirin for antiplatelet therapy. Which information is important for the nurse to include in patient education about aspirin therapy?

  1. A. "Take aspirin with a full glass of milk to minimize gastrointestinal upset."
  2. B. "Avoid using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) while taking aspirin."
  3. C. "Discontinue aspirin therapy if you develop a fever."
  4. D. "Take aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption."
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Question 7

Which cells produce the pigment that contributes to hair colour?

  1. A. keratinocytes
  2. B. melanocytes
  3. C. Langerhans cells
  4. D. Merkel cells
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Question 8

Which cells produce the pigment that contributes to hair colour?

  1. A. keratinocytes
  2. B. melanocytes
  3. C. Langerhans cells
  4. D. Merkel cells
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Question 9

A client in the intensive care unit is receiving teaching before removal of an endotracheal tube. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

  1. A. Rest in a side-lying position after the tube is removed.
  2. B. Use the incentive spirometer every 4 hours after the tube is removed.
  3. C. Avoid speaking for extended periods.
  4. D. Vital signs will be monitored by a nurse every 15 minutes in the first hour after the tube is removed.
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Question 10

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of epistaxis, particularly after blowing the nose or during dry weather. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a friable, vascular lesion in Little's area. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing this condition?

  1. A. Nasal packing with anterior nasal tampons
  2. B. Application of silver nitrate cautery
  3. C. Endoscopic cauterization of the sphenopalatine artery
  4. D. Surgical excision of the nasal polyp
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Question 11

Which cells produce the pigment that contributes to hair colour?

  1. A. keratinocytes
  2. B. melanocytes
  3. C. Langerhans cells
  4. D. Merkel cells
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Question 12

A patient presents with sudden-onset weakness and sensory loss on one side of the body along with difficulty speaking and understanding speech. Imaging reveals an acute infarction involving the right middle cerebral artery territory. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

  1. A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
  2. B. Intracerebral hemorrhage
  3. C. Ischemic stroke
  4. D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
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Question 13

Which one of the following statements regarding genitourinary injuries is true?

  1. A. "Urethral injuries are associated with pelvic fractures"
  2. B. All patients with microscopic hematuria require evaluation of genitourinary tract
  3. C. Patients presenting with gross hematuria and shock will have a major renal injury as the source of hemorrhage
  4. D. Intraperitoneal bladder injuries are usually managed definitively with a urinary catheter
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Question 14

A patient becomes emotional while discussing their recent diagnosis. What is the nurse's most appropriate response?

  1. A. Ignore the patient's emotions and continue with the conversation.
  2. B. Acknowledge the patient's emotions and offer empathy and support.
  3. C. Tell the patient to stop being emotional and focus on the facts.
  4. D. Change the subject to avoid further emotional distress.
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Question 15

Which of the following statements concerned with the microbiota is NOT true?

  1. A. It colonizes our body at birth
  2. B. Its composition in adults is influenced by several factors, including diet and exercise
  3. C. Obesity is associated with alterations in the composition of gut microbiota. This condition has been shown to be transmissible in mice when microbiota from obese mice is transferred to lean mice
  4. D. Bacteria found in obese mice are less efficient at extracting energy from food and this in turn impacts on the sense of satiety of the animal.
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About these RN exams medical-surgical questions

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 18 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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