RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 22
RN exams · medical-surgical
RN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 22
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Endophthalmitis
D. Corneal abrasion
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Anterior uveitis
The presentation described in the question is classic for anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the iris and ciliary body and is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (redness around the iris), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light due to inflammation causing spasm of the iris muscles. Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with similar symptoms but would also have increased intraocular pressure, which is not mentioned in the presentation. Endophthalmitis is an infection of the intraocular cavities and would typically present with more severe symptoms, such as severe pain, vision loss, and presence of pus in the eye. Corneal abrasion would present with pain, foreign body sensation, and possibly tearing but would not cause ciliary injection or fixed pupil reaction as
Question 2
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences chronic cough and excessive sputum production. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
A. Administer bronchodilator medications to improve airway clearance.
B. Encourage the patient to practice controlled coughing techniques.
C. Prescribe mucolytic medications to thin respiratory secretions.
D. Refer the patient to a respiratory therapist for breathing exercises.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Encourage the patient to practice controlled coughing techniques.
Encouraging the patient to practice controlled coughing techniques would be the most appropriate intervention to address the symptoms of chronic cough and excessive sputum production in a patient with end-stage COPD receiving palliative care. Controlled coughing techniques can help the patient effectively clear respiratory secretions and improve airway clearance without the need for additional medications or interventions. This approach focuses on optimizing the patient's ability to manage their symptoms and maintain comfort, which aligns with the goals of palliative care. Administering bronchodilator medications, prescribing mucolytic medications, or referring the patient to a respiratory therapist for breathing exercises may have limited effectiveness in this advanced stage of the disease, and controlled coughing techniques would be a more practical and patient-centered approach to symptom management.
Question 3
A teenaged male patient who is on a wrestling team is examined by the nurse in the clinic. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of pediculosis?
A. Ring - like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp
B. Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft
C. Patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas
D. Red, hive - like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft
The correct answer is B because papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft are characteristic of pediculosis (lice infestation). The white deposits are lice eggs (nits) attached to the hair shaft, indicating the presence of lice. This finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of lice. Sharing headgear can facilitate the transmission of lice from one person to another.
Choice A is incorrect as ring-like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp are more indicative of ringworm (tinea capitis), a fungal infection, not pediculosis.
Choice C is incorrect as patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas are more indicative of scalp folliculitis or herpes zoster, not pediculosis.
Choice D is incorrect as red, hive-like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders are
Question 4
While preparing the operating room (OR) for a surgical procedure, the nurse notices that the surgical instrument tray is incomplete. What should the nurse do?
A. Proceed with the procedure using the available instruments
B. Document the missing instruments in the surgical count log
C. Inform the sterile processing department and request additional instruments
D. Borrow the missing instruments from another OR Professionalism and Fundamentals of Nursing
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Inform the sterile processing department and request additional instruments
It is crucial to have a complete set of surgical instruments for any surgical procedure to ensure patient safety and the success of the surgery. If the nurse notices that the surgical instrument tray is incomplete, the best course of action is to inform the sterile processing department immediately. By doing so, the missing instruments can be promptly provided, ensuring that the surgical team has all the necessary tools for the procedure. Proceeding with the procedure using incomplete instruments can compromise patient safety and the quality of care provided. Documenting the missing instruments in the surgical count log is important for record-keeping purposes but should not delay the immediate action of requesting additional instruments. Borrowing instruments from another OR is not recommended as it can create confusion, potential cross-contamination, and disrupt the workflow of another surgical team.
Question 5
Which of the following terms describes a bed that is completely made with the bedspread and blankets in place?
A. Closed bed
B. Open bed
C. Occupied bed
D. Unoccupied bed
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — Closed bed
The correct answer is A: Closed bed. A closed bed refers to a bed that is completely made with the bedspread and blankets neatly in place. This term is commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure cleanliness and readiness for the next occupant.
Rationale:
1. A closed bed signifies that the bed is fully prepared and is ready for immediate use.
2. It includes tucking in the sheets, smoothing out the blankets, and arranging the pillows.
3. Having a closed bed maintains a neat and organized appearance in the room.
4. It also helps to prevent the accumulation of dust and dirt on the bedding.
Summary:
B: Open bed - This term refers to a bed that has been partially or fully stripped of its bedding and linens.
C: Occupied bed - This term describes a bed that currently has a patient or occupant lying in it.
D: Unoccupied bed - This term refers to an empty bed that may or may not have its bedding in place.
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Question 6
A patient with chronic bronchitis presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and exertional dyspnea. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing the patient's symptoms and improving quality of life?
A. Smoking cessation counseling
B. Oral antibiotic therapy
C. Home oxygen therapy
D. Bronchodilator therapy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Bronchodilator therapy. Bronchodilators help to relax and open up the airways, which can improve airflow and reduce symptoms such as cough, sputum production, and dyspnea in patients with chronic bronchitis. This intervention can help manage the patient's symptoms and improve their quality of life by making it easier for them to breathe.
A: Smoking cessation counseling is important for overall management of chronic bronchitis, but it does not directly address the patient's current symptoms.
B: Oral antibiotic therapy may be indicated if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, but it is not the first-line treatment for managing chronic bronchitis symptoms.
C: Home oxygen therapy may be necessary for patients with severe hypoxemia, but it is not typically the first intervention for managing symptoms of chronic bronchitis without evidence of significant oxygen desaturation.
A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops dysphagia and dysarthria. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
D. Myasthenia gravis
Correct answer:
The symptoms described, including progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, fasciculations, dysphagia, and dysarthria primarily involving the upper and lower extremities, are classic features of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects the motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. As the disease progresses, patients may develop difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and speaking (dysarthria). In contrast, Parkinson's disease primarily involves movement-related symptoms such as tremors, muscle stiffness, and slow movements. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy that typically presents with ascending weakness and sensory abnormalities, often preceded by an infection. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness exacerbated by
A nurse is interested in providing community education and screening on hypertension. In order to reach a priority population, to what target audience should the nurse provide this service?
A. African American churches
B. Asian American groceries
C. High school sports camps
D. Women's health clinics
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: African American churches. This target audience is appropriate because African Americans have a higher prevalence of hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. By providing education and screening at African American churches, the nurse can reach a population that is at higher risk for hypertension. Churches are also community hubs where individuals gather regularly, making it an effective platform for health promotion.
Choice B: Asian American groceries is incorrect as it does not specifically target a population with a high prevalence of hypertension.
Choice C: High school sports camps may not be an ideal target audience for hypertension education as the focus is typically on physical fitness rather than chronic disease management.
Choice D: Women's health clinics may not reach the priority population of African Americans who have a higher prevalence of hypertension.
Edward, a newborn delivered at 41 weeks' gestation, weighs 10 lb 4 oz. Vaginal delivery for this G1P1 mother was assisted with forceps. The nurse is completing her assessment and notes a sharply demarcated swelling over the parietal bones. The occipital and frontal skull bones are not affected. The neck does not appear edematous and is soft to the touch with full mobility. The infant is awake and active and has been breast-feeding well. What is the most probable cause of the swelling?
A. cephalohematoma
B. subgaleal hemorrhage
C. caput succedaneum
D. skull fracture
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: cephalohematoma. Cephalohematoma is a subperiosteal collection of blood that occurs due to trauma during delivery, such as with forceps assistance. The swelling is sharply demarcated because it is bound by suture lines of the skull bones. In this case, the parietal bones are affected, while the other skull bones are not involved. The absence of edema in the neck and the infant's good activity and feeding suggest no significant underlying issues.
Summary:
B: Subgaleal hemorrhage involves bleeding into the potential space between the periosteum and the skull, resulting in diffuse swelling extending beyond suture lines.
C: Caput succedaneum is soft tissue swelling that crosses suture lines and involves the scalp, not just the parietal bones.
D: Skull fracture would present with additional signs such as crepitus, misshapen skull, or neurological deficits, which are not mentioned
The female client tells the clinic nurse she is going on a seven(7)-day cruise and is worried about getting motion sickness. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client?
A. Make an appointment for the client to see the health-care provider.
B. Recommend getting an over-the-counter scopolamine patch.
C. Discourage the client from taking the trip because she is worried.
D. Instruct the client to lie down and the motion sickness will go away.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because recommending an over-the-counter scopolamine patch is an appropriate intervention for preventing motion sickness during a cruise. Scopolamine is a common medication used to alleviate symptoms of motion sickness by affecting the vestibular system. It is often recommended for individuals going on cruises or experiencing other forms of motion sickness.
Choice A is incorrect because making an appointment with the healthcare provider may not be necessary for a common issue like motion sickness and could delay the client's access to immediate relief.
Choice C is incorrect as discouraging the client from taking the trip does not address the client's concern about motion sickness and is not a practical solution.
Choice D is incorrect as instructing the client to lie down does not address motion sickness and may not be effective in preventing or alleviating symptoms.
A nurse is applying a dressing to a wound that has moderate to heavy exudate. Which of the following types of dressing would be most appropriate for this wound?
A. Transparent film
B. Hydrogel
C. Foam
D. Alginate
Correct answer:
Alginate is the correct answer because it is highly absorbent, capable of managing moderate to heavy exudate by absorbing up to 20 times its weight in fluid, making it ideal for such wounds. It forms a gel when in contact with exudate, maintaining a moist environment that supports healing and autolytic debridement, while preventing maceration of surrounding skin. Transparent film is non-absorbent and suited for dry wounds, offering protection but not fluid management. Hydrogel is minimally absorbent and better for dry or minimally exudative wounds, providing hydration rather than absorption. Foam is moderately absorbent, handling light to moderate exudate, but less effective than alginate for heavy drainage due to its lower capacity (up to four times its weight). The wound's moderate to heavy exudate requires a dressing like alginate to effectively manage fluid and promote optimal healing conditions.
A high school teacher with ulnar drift caused by rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is scheduled for arthroplasty of several joints in the left hand. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a realistic expectation for the surgery?
A. This procedure will correct the deformities in my fingers.'
B. I will not have to do as many hand exercises after the surgery.'
C. I will be able to use my fingers with more flexibility to grasp things.'
D. My fingers will appear more normal in size and shape after this surgery.'
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: "I will be able to use my fingers with more flexibility to grasp things." This answer is correct because arthroplasty surgery aims to improve joint function and mobility rather than correcting deformities or changing the appearance of the fingers. Patients with ulnar drift caused by RA typically have limited mobility and flexibility in their fingers, so the goal of the surgery is to enhance the ability to use the fingers for daily tasks.
Choice A is incorrect because while the surgery may improve finger function, it may not fully correct all deformities caused by RA. Choice B is incorrect because hand exercises are typically an important part of the post-operative rehabilitation process to regain strength and mobility. Choice D is incorrect because while the surgery may improve the alignment of the joints, it may not significantly change the size or shape of the fingers.
Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care after a patient with a right femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied?
A. Avoid placing the patient in prone position.
B. Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort.
C. Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks.
D. Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort. This is important because the patient with a hip spica cast may experience pressure on the abdomen, leading to potential abdominal discomfort or complications. It is crucial to monitor for signs of abdominal issues promptly.
A: Avoid placing the patient in prone position - While this is generally a good practice to prevent pressure ulcers, it is not directly related to the specific concern of abdominal discomfort in this scenario.
C: Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks - While bed rest may be necessary for a period, it is not directly addressing the potential issue of abdominal discomfort from the spica cast.
D: Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient - While repositioning the patient is important, the primary concern in this situation is monitoring for abdominal discomfort, not repositioning the patient.
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a hyperdense lesion within the brain parenchyma, suggestive of acute bleeding. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Subdural hematoma
C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct answer:
Intracerebral hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding directly into the brain parenchyma, leading to the sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and neurological deficits. The hyperdense lesion seen on imaging is caused by the presence of blood within the brain tissue. This condition is often associated with hypertension and can be life-threatening if not promptly diagnosed and managed. Subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood between the brain and its outermost covering (dura mater), typically presenting with a slower onset of symptoms compared to intracerebral hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage involves bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (subarachnoid space), commonly caused by the rupture of an aneurysm. Ischemic stroke results from the blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to
What is the main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?
A. Recruitment of neutrophils
B. Phagocytosis activation
C. Lysis of pathogens
D. Enhancing cytokine production
Correct answer:
The main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) is to lyse pathogens by creating pores in their cell membranes. First, MAC assembles on the pathogen's surface. Then, it forms a pore, disrupting the pathogen's membrane integrity, leading to cell lysis. This mechanism is crucial for the immune system to effectively eliminate pathogens.
Choice A (Recruitment of neutrophils) is incorrect because MAC is not involved in recruiting neutrophils. Neutrophil recruitment is typically mediated by other signaling molecules.
Choice B (Phagocytosis activation) is incorrect as MAC does not directly activate phagocytosis. Phagocytosis is a separate process involving the engulfment of pathogens by immune cells.
Choice D (Enhancing cytokine production) is incorrect because MAC does not directly enhance cytokine production. Cytokine production is mainly regulated by other immune cells and signaling pathways.
RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 22 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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