RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 22

RN exams · medical-surgical

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 22

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

  1. A. Anterior uveitis
  2. B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
  3. C. Endophthalmitis
  4. D. Corneal abrasion
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Anterior uveitis

The presentation described in the question is classic for anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the iris and ciliary body and is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (redness around the iris), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light due to inflammation causing spasm of the iris muscles. Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with similar symptoms but would also have increased intraocular pressure, which is not mentioned in the presentation. Endophthalmitis is an infection of the intraocular cavities and would typically present with more severe symptoms, such as severe pain, vision loss, and presence of pus in the eye. Corneal abrasion would present with pain, foreign body sensation, and possibly tearing but would not cause ciliary injection or fixed pupil reaction as

Question 2

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences chronic cough and excessive sputum production. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?

  1. A. Administer bronchodilator medications to improve airway clearance.
  2. B. Encourage the patient to practice controlled coughing techniques.
  3. C. Prescribe mucolytic medications to thin respiratory secretions.
  4. D. Refer the patient to a respiratory therapist for breathing exercises.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Encourage the patient to practice controlled coughing techniques.

Encouraging the patient to practice controlled coughing techniques would be the most appropriate intervention to address the symptoms of chronic cough and excessive sputum production in a patient with end-stage COPD receiving palliative care. Controlled coughing techniques can help the patient effectively clear respiratory secretions and improve airway clearance without the need for additional medications or interventions. This approach focuses on optimizing the patient's ability to manage their symptoms and maintain comfort, which aligns with the goals of palliative care. Administering bronchodilator medications, prescribing mucolytic medications, or referring the patient to a respiratory therapist for breathing exercises may have limited effectiveness in this advanced stage of the disease, and controlled coughing techniques would be a more practical and patient-centered approach to symptom management.

Question 3

A teenaged male patient who is on a wrestling team is examined by the nurse in the clinic. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of pediculosis?

  1. A. Ring - like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp
  2. B. Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft
  3. C. Patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas
  4. D. Red, hive - like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft

The correct answer is B because papular, wheal-like lesions with white deposits on the hair shaft are characteristic of pediculosis (lice infestation). The white deposits are lice eggs (nits) attached to the hair shaft, indicating the presence of lice. This finding would prompt the nurse to teach the patient about the importance of not sharing headgear to prevent the spread of lice. Sharing headgear can facilitate the transmission of lice from one person to another. Choice A is incorrect as ring-like rashes with red, scaly borders over the entire scalp are more indicative of ringworm (tinea capitis), a fungal infection, not pediculosis. Choice C is incorrect as patchy areas of alopecia with small vesicles and excoriated areas are more indicative of scalp folliculitis or herpes zoster, not pediculosis. Choice D is incorrect as red, hive-like papules and plaques with sharply circumscribed borders are

Question 4

While preparing the operating room (OR) for a surgical procedure, the nurse notices that the surgical instrument tray is incomplete. What should the nurse do?

  1. A. Proceed with the procedure using the available instruments
  2. B. Document the missing instruments in the surgical count log
  3. C. Inform the sterile processing department and request additional instruments
  4. D. Borrow the missing instruments from another OR Professionalism and Fundamentals of Nursing
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Inform the sterile processing department and request additional instruments

It is crucial to have a complete set of surgical instruments for any surgical procedure to ensure patient safety and the success of the surgery. If the nurse notices that the surgical instrument tray is incomplete, the best course of action is to inform the sterile processing department immediately. By doing so, the missing instruments can be promptly provided, ensuring that the surgical team has all the necessary tools for the procedure. Proceeding with the procedure using incomplete instruments can compromise patient safety and the quality of care provided. Documenting the missing instruments in the surgical count log is important for record-keeping purposes but should not delay the immediate action of requesting additional instruments. Borrowing instruments from another OR is not recommended as it can create confusion, potential cross-contamination, and disrupt the workflow of another surgical team.

Question 5

Which of the following terms describes a bed that is completely made with the bedspread and blankets in place?

  1. A. Closed bed
  2. B. Open bed
  3. C. Occupied bed
  4. D. Unoccupied bed
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Closed bed

The correct answer is A: Closed bed. A closed bed refers to a bed that is completely made with the bedspread and blankets neatly in place. This term is commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure cleanliness and readiness for the next occupant. Rationale: 1. A closed bed signifies that the bed is fully prepared and is ready for immediate use. 2. It includes tucking in the sheets, smoothing out the blankets, and arranging the pillows. 3. Having a closed bed maintains a neat and organized appearance in the room. 4. It also helps to prevent the accumulation of dust and dirt on the bedding. Summary: B: Open bed - This term refers to a bed that has been partially or fully stripped of its bedding and linens. C: Occupied bed - This term describes a bed that currently has a patient or occupant lying in it. D: Unoccupied bed - This term refers to an empty bed that may or may not have its bedding in place.

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Question 6

A patient with chronic bronchitis presents with chronic cough, sputum production, and exertional dyspnea. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing the patient's symptoms and improving quality of life?

  1. A. Smoking cessation counseling
  2. B. Oral antibiotic therapy
  3. C. Home oxygen therapy
  4. D. Bronchodilator therapy
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Question 7

A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops dysphagia and dysarthria. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

  1. A. Parkinson's disease
  2. B. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
  3. C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
  4. D. Myasthenia gravis
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Question 8

A nurse is interested in providing community education and screening on hypertension. In order to reach a priority population, to what target audience should the nurse provide this service?

  1. A. African American churches
  2. B. Asian American groceries
  3. C. High school sports camps
  4. D. Women's health clinics
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Question 9

Edward, a newborn delivered at 41 weeks' gestation, weighs 10 lb 4 oz. Vaginal delivery for this G1P1 mother was assisted with forceps. The nurse is completing her assessment and notes a sharply demarcated swelling over the parietal bones. The occipital and frontal skull bones are not affected. The neck does not appear edematous and is soft to the touch with full mobility. The infant is awake and active and has been breast-feeding well. What is the most probable cause of the swelling?

  1. A. cephalohematoma
  2. B. subgaleal hemorrhage
  3. C. caput succedaneum
  4. D. skull fracture
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Question 10

The female client tells the clinic nurse she is going on a seven(7)-day cruise and is worried about getting motion sickness. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client?

  1. A. Make an appointment for the client to see the health-care provider.
  2. B. Recommend getting an over-the-counter scopolamine patch.
  3. C. Discourage the client from taking the trip because she is worried.
  4. D. Instruct the client to lie down and the motion sickness will go away.
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Question 11

A nurse is applying a dressing to a wound that has moderate to heavy exudate. Which of the following types of dressing would be most appropriate for this wound?

  1. A. Transparent film
  2. B. Hydrogel
  3. C. Foam
  4. D. Alginate
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Question 12

A high school teacher with ulnar drift caused by rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is scheduled for arthroplasty of several joints in the left hand. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a realistic expectation for the surgery?

  1. A. This procedure will correct the deformities in my fingers.'
  2. B. I will not have to do as many hand exercises after the surgery.'
  3. C. I will be able to use my fingers with more flexibility to grasp things.'
  4. D. My fingers will appear more normal in size and shape after this surgery.'
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Question 13

Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care after a patient with a right femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied?

  1. A. Avoid placing the patient in prone position.
  2. B. Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort.
  3. C. Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks.
  4. D. Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient.
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Question 14

A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a hyperdense lesion within the brain parenchyma, suggestive of acute bleeding. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

  1. A. Ischemic stroke
  2. B. Subdural hematoma
  3. C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
  4. D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
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Question 15

What is the main function of the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)?

  1. A. Recruitment of neutrophils
  2. B. Phagocytosis activation
  3. C. Lysis of pathogens
  4. D. Enhancing cytokine production
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About these RN exams medical-surgical questions

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 22 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.