RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 20

Correct answer:

In a postpartum client exhibiting signs of anxiety, restlessness, and palpitations, it is essential to prioritize notifying the healthcare provider immediately. These symptoms could indicate a serious condition such as postpartum preeclampsia, postpartum hemorrhage, or postpartum cardiomyopathy, which require urgent medical attention. It is crucial to rule out any life-threatening conditions and ensure the client receives appropriate treatment promptly. While relaxation techniques and deep breathing exercises can be helpful for anxiety management in some cases, in this situation, the priority is to ensure the client's safety and well-being by seeking medical evaluation and intervention. Administering a benzodiazepine without consulting the healthcare provider first could potentially mask symptoms or interact with other medications the client may be taking, making it unsafe to proceed without professional guidance.

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The correct answer is B: Equity in services. Collaboration and teamwork in public health are crucial to ensure equal access to services for all populations, regardless of their background or socioeconomic status. By working together, public health professionals can identify disparities and implement strategies to address them, ultimately leading to improved equity in healthcare services. A: Staff performance - While collaboration and teamwork can positively impact staff performance, the primary focus in public health is on achieving equity in services for all individuals. C: Proper use of resources - Collaboration can help optimize resource allocation, but the main goal in public health is to ensure equitable access to services. D: Quality healthcare - While collaboration can enhance the quality of healthcare, the primary emphasis in public health is on promoting equity in services to address health disparities.

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The correct answer is A: Closed bed. A closed bed refers to a bed that is completely made with the bedspread and blankets neatly in place. This term is commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure cleanliness and readiness for the next occupant. Rationale: 1. A closed bed signifies that the bed is fully prepared and is ready for immediate use. 2. It includes tucking in the sheets, smoothing out the blankets, and arranging the pillows. 3. Having a closed bed maintains a neat and organized appearance in the room. 4. It also helps to prevent the accumulation of dust and dirt on the bedding. Summary: B: Open bed - This term refers to a bed that has been partially or fully stripped of its bedding and linens. C: Occupied bed - This term describes a bed that currently has a patient or occupant lying in it. D: Unoccupied bed - This term refers to an empty bed that may or may not have its bedding in place.

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The correct answer is A: Bring a list of all medications and their purposes. This is important as it helps prevent medication errors during the surgical procedure. By having a list of medications and their purposes, the healthcare team can ensure they are administering the correct medications and dosages. This also helps in preventing drug interactions or allergies. Option B (Keep the doctor's phone number close by) may be helpful in case of emergencies, but it does not directly address preventing errors during the surgical procedure. Option C (Ensure all providers wash their hands before entering the room) is important for infection control but is not specifically related to preventing errors. Option D (Document the name of each caregiver who enters the room) is not as critical as having a list of medications, as it does not directly impact the safety and well-being of the client during the surgical procedure.

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In a pregnant woman presenting with severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding at 8 weeks gestation with a closed cervix, the most likely cause of these symptoms is a threatened abortion. A threatened abortion is a common complication of early pregnancy characterized by vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain without cervical dilation. The cervix remains closed, indicating that the pregnancy is still intact but at risk of potential miscarriage. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester, whereas ectopic pregnancy usually presents with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in the setting of a closed cervix but is less likely at 8 weeks gestation. Gestational trophoblastic disease is a rare cause of vaginal bleeding in pregnancy and typically presents in the first trimester with signs of hyperemesis gravidarum, uterine enlargement, and elevated β-hCG levels.

Correct answer:

Primary intention,' as it describes Lois Griffin's heart transplant incision made deliberately, closed immediately with sutures post-surgery, promoting rapid healing with minimal scarring. Primary intention applies to clean, intentional wounds with edges approximated right after the procedure, typical in controlled surgical settings. 'Delayed primary intention' involves leaving the wound open briefly before closure, not immediate suturing as here. 'Secondary intention' is for wounds left open to heal naturally, unsuitable for a precise incision. 'Tertiary intention' combines initial openness with later closure, irrelevant to instant suturing. In nursing, primary intention is standard for surgeries like transplants, ensuring quick recovery and infection control. The question's focus on immediate closure rules out alternatives, making A the precise fit per wound healing classifications and surgical care protocols.

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The epidermis is a dynamic tissue where cells are continuously renewed. The stratum germinativum, the deepest layer, generates new cells via mitosis. These cells migrate upward, differentiating through the spinosum, granulosum, and, in thick skin, lucidum layers, before reaching the stratum corneum as dead, keratinized cells. This process, known as epidermal turnover, takes approximately 15-20 days in healthy adults, though it can vary slightly (e.g., 10-30 days) depending on age, health, and location. A 6-8 week or 12-15 week timeline is far too long for this cellular journey, as it would imply a sluggish renewal rate inconsistent with the skin's protective role. An 8-10 day estimate is too short for full differentiation and migration. The 15-20 day range reflects the balance between cell production and shedding, supported by dermatological studies, ensuring the skin maintains its barrier function efficiently.

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The correct answer is C: Increase fluid intake while taking the drug. Interferon alfa 2b can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, chills, and muscle aches, leading to dehydration. Increasing fluid intake helps to prevent dehydration and supports the body's ability to manage these side effects. A: Avoid drinking alcohol while taking the drug - Although it is generally recommended to limit alcohol consumption while taking medications, this is not specifically related to interferon alfa 2b. B: Continue to maintain maximal physical activity - Excessive physical activity may exacerbate the flu-like symptoms caused by interferon alfa 2b, so it is advisable to avoid overexertion. D: Treat constipation with over-the-counter laxatives - Constipation is not a common side effect of interferon alfa 2b, so using over-the-counter laxatives may not be necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.

Correct answer:

The epidermis is a dynamic tissue where cells are continuously renewed. The stratum germinativum, the deepest layer, generates new cells via mitosis. These cells migrate upward, differentiating through the spinosum, granulosum, and, in thick skin, lucidum layers, before reaching the stratum corneum as dead, keratinized cells. This process, known as epidermal turnover, takes approximately 15-20 days in healthy adults, though it can vary slightly (e.g., 10-30 days) depending on age, health, and location. A 6-8 week or 12-15 week timeline is far too long for this cellular journey, as it would imply a sluggish renewal rate inconsistent with the skin's protective role. An 8-10 day estimate is too short for full differentiation and migration. The 15-20 day range reflects the balance between cell production and shedding, supported by dermatological studies, ensuring the skin maintains its barrier function efficiently.

Correct answer:

The epidermis is a dynamic tissue where cells are continuously renewed. The stratum germinativum, the deepest layer, generates new cells via mitosis. These cells migrate upward, differentiating through the spinosum, granulosum, and, in thick skin, lucidum layers, before reaching the stratum corneum as dead, keratinized cells. This process, known as epidermal turnover, takes approximately 15-20 days in healthy adults, though it can vary slightly (e.g., 10-30 days) depending on age, health, and location. A 6-8 week or 12-15 week timeline is far too long for this cellular journey, as it would imply a sluggish renewal rate inconsistent with the skin's protective role. An 8-10 day estimate is too short for full differentiation and migration. The 15-20 day range reflects the balance between cell production and shedding, supported by dermatological studies, ensuring the skin maintains its barrier function efficiently.