RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 19

RN exams · medical-surgical

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 19

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

Which of the following statements concerned with the microbiota is NOT true?

  1. A. It colonizes our body at birth
  2. B. Its composition in adults is influenced by several factors, including diet and exercise
  3. C. Obesity is associated with alterations in the composition of gut microbiota. This condition has been shown to be transmissible in mice when microbiota from obese mice is transferred to lean mice
  4. D. Bacteria found in obese mice are less efficient at extracting energy from food and this in turn impacts on the sense of satiety of the animal.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Bacteria found in obese mice are less efficient at extracting energy from food and this in turn impacts on the sense of satiety of the animal.

The correct answer is D because it is the only statement that is not entirely true regarding the microbiota. The rationale for this is that bacteria found in obese mice are actually more efficient at extracting energy from food, not less efficient as mentioned in option D. This increased efficiency contributes to the higher energy extraction from food, leading to weight gain in obese individuals. The other options (A, B, C) are correct as they align with current research and understanding of the microbiota. Option A is true as the microbiota begins to colonize our body at birth. Option B is also true as the composition of the microbiota in adults can indeed be influenced by various factors such as diet and exercise. Option C is true as obesity has been linked to alterations in gut microbiota composition, and studies have shown that transferring microbiota from obese to lean mice can induce weight gain in the lean mice.

Question 2

Which of the following statements concerned with the microbiota is NOT true?

  1. A. It colonizes our body at birth
  2. B. Its composition in adults is influenced by several factors, including diet and exercise
  3. C. Obesity is associated with alterations in the composition of gut microbiota. This condition has been shown to be transmissible in mice when microbiota from obese mice is transferred to lean mice
  4. D. Bacteria found in obese mice are less efficient at extracting energy from food and this in turn impacts on the sense of satiety of the animal.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Bacteria found in obese mice are less efficient at extracting energy from food and this in turn impacts on the sense of satiety of the animal.

The correct answer is D because it is the only statement that is not entirely true regarding the microbiota. The rationale for this is that bacteria found in obese mice are actually more efficient at extracting energy from food, not less efficient as mentioned in option D. This increased efficiency contributes to the higher energy extraction from food, leading to weight gain in obese individuals. The other options (A, B, C) are correct as they align with current research and understanding of the microbiota. Option A is true as the microbiota begins to colonize our body at birth. Option B is also true as the composition of the microbiota in adults can indeed be influenced by various factors such as diet and exercise. Option C is true as obesity has been linked to alterations in gut microbiota composition, and studies have shown that transferring microbiota from obese to lean mice can induce weight gain in the lean mice.

Question 3

A client who has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) due to an aminoglycoside antibiotic has moved from the oliguric phase to the diuretic phase of AKI. Which parameters are most important for the nurse to plan to carefully monitor?

  1. A. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids.
  2. B. Uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces.
  3. C. Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
  4. D. Hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes.

During the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), monitoring for hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes is crucial. Hypovolemia can occur due to the increased urine output in this phase, potentially leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Electrolyte imbalances can result in ECG changes, such as arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful monitoring of fluid status and ECG findings helps in preventing complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most crucial parameters to monitor during the diuretic phase of AKI. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids, uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces, and elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are important considerations in other phases of AKI or in other conditions, but they are not the primary focus during the diuretic phase when hypovolemia and ECG changes take precedence.

Question 4

Which of the following is a common complication associated with long-term corticosteroid use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?

  1. A. Osteoporotic fracture
  2. B. Osteonecrosis of the femoral head
  3. C. Avascular necrosis of the talus
  4. D. Septic arthritis
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — Osteoporotic fracture

Long-term corticosteroid use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis can lead to osteoporosis, which is a common complication. Osteoporosis causes weakening of the bones, increasing the risk of fractures, particularly in weight-bearing bones such as the hip, spine, and wrist. Osteoporotic fractures are a significant concern in patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy, highlighting the importance of monitoring bone health and considering preventive measures such as calcium, Vitamin D supplementation, and regular bone density testing. While osteonecrosis of the femoral head and avascular necrosis of the talus can also occur as complications of corticosteroid use, osteoporotic fractures are more commonly associated with this type of therapy in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Septic arthritis, on the other hand, is not directly related to corticosteroid use but can occur due to other factors such as joint infections.

Question 5

Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

  1. A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
  2. B. Graves' disease
  3. C. Diabetes mellitus
  4. D. Thyroid nodules
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Graves' disease

The symptoms described—tachycardia, weight loss, and tremors—are consistent with hyperthyroidism. Graves' disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism and is an autoimmune disorder in which the thyroid gland is overactive. This condition can lead to an increased production of thyroid hormones, resulting in symptoms such as rapid heartbeat (tachycardia), unintended weight loss, and tremors. In contrast, Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that causes hypothyroidism, leading to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels, which typically presents with symptoms such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Thyroid nodules are growths within the thyroid gland that can sometimes be associated with overactive (hyperthyroidism) or underactive (hypothyroidism) thyroid function, but they do not

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Question 6

What is a skin graft that is used to transfer skin and subcutaneous tissue to large areas of deep tissue destruction called?

  1. A. Skin flap
  2. B. Free graft
  3. C. Soft tissue extension
  4. D. Free graft with vascular anastomoses
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Question 7

A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

  1. A. Herpes simplex virus infection
  2. B. Herpes zoster (shingles)
  3. C. Varicella (chickenpox)
  4. D. Impetigo
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Question 8

Which tissue region do nails originate from?

  1. A. eponychium
  2. B. lunula
  3. C. nail matrix
  4. D. cuticle
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Question 9

Which tissue region do nails originate from?

  1. A. eponychium
  2. B. lunula
  3. C. nail matrix
  4. D. cuticle
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Question 10

Which tissue region do nails originate from?

  1. A. eponychium
  2. B. lunula
  3. C. nail matrix
  4. D. cuticle
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Question 11

Which is the proper sequence of epidermal layers pierced as a sliver penetrates the dermis of the hand?

  1. A. spinosum, germinativum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
  2. B. germinativum, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
  3. C. corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, germinativum
  4. D. corneum, lucidum, spinosum, granulosum, germinativum
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Question 12

Which is the proper sequence of epidermal layers pierced as a sliver penetrates the dermis of the hand?

  1. A. spinosum, germinativum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
  2. B. germinativum, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
  3. C. corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, germinativum
  4. D. corneum, lucidum, spinosum, granulosum, germinativum
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Question 13

A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral headache, along with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

  1. A. Cluster headache
  2. B. Migraine headache
  3. C. Tension-type headache
  4. D. Trigeminal neuralgia
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Question 14

Which is the proper sequence of epidermal layers pierced as a sliver penetrates the dermis of the hand?

  1. A. spinosum, germinativum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
  2. B. germinativum, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
  3. C. corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, germinativum
  4. D. corneum, lucidum, spinosum, granulosum, germinativum
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Question 15

Which nursing action for a patient who has had right hip arthroplasty can the nurse delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

  1. A. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
  2. B. Assess for skin irritation on the patient’s back.
  3. C. Teach the patient quadriceps-setting exercises.
  4. D. Determine the patient’s pain intensity and tolerance.
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About these RN exams medical-surgical questions

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 19 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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