RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 14

RN exams · medical-surgical

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 14

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

What is the primary cause of anaphylaxis?

  1. A. Immune complex deposition
  2. B. Systemic release of vasoactive mediators
  3. C. Localized mast cell degranulation
  4. D. T cell activation
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Systemic release of vasoactive mediators

The correct answer is B: Systemic release of vasoactive mediators. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that is primarily caused by the systemic release of vasoactive mediators such as histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes from mast cells and basophils. These mediators lead to widespread vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, bronchoconstriction, and systemic hypotension, resulting in the characteristic symptoms of anaphylaxis. Choice A (Immune complex deposition) is incorrect because anaphylaxis is not caused by the deposition of immune complexes but rather by the immediate hypersensitivity reaction. Choice C (Localized mast cell degranulation) is incorrect because anaphylaxis involves systemic mast cell degranulation leading to widespread effects throughout the body, not just localized reactions. Choice D (T cell activation) is incorrect because anaphylaxis is primarily mediated by IgE antibodies and mast cells, not T cells.

Question 2

Which immune system function is most relevant to cancer?

  1. A. Suppressing cytokine release
  2. B. Promoting adaptive immunity only
  3. C. Identifying and eliminating abnormal cells
  4. D. Limiting the effectiveness of phagocytes
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Identifying and eliminating abnormal cells

The correct answer is C: Identifying and eliminating abnormal cells. This function is most relevant to cancer because the immune system's ability to recognize and destroy abnormal cells is crucial in preventing the development and spread of cancer. The immune system constantly surveys the body for cells that have mutated or become cancerous, and when identified, it initiates an immune response to eliminate them. This process is essential for maintaining the body's health and preventing cancerous cells from proliferating. Choice A (Suppressing cytokine release) is incorrect because cytokines play a role in regulating the immune response, which can be important in cancer immunity. Choice B (Promoting adaptive immunity only) is incorrect as both innate and adaptive immune responses are involved in combating cancer. Choice D (Limiting the effectiveness of phagocytes) is incorrect as phagocytes are important in recognizing and destroying cancer cells.

Question 3

A nurse is planning an in-service on preventing infection for the staff nurses on a hospital's medical-surgical unit. Which of the following should be the priority teaching point for this in-service?

  1. A. Raising the temperature in each client's room
  2. B. Assessing vital signs once daily
  3. C. Wearing a mask for client care
  4. D. Performing hand hygiene
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Performing hand hygiene

The correct answer is D: Performing hand hygiene. Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. By washing hands thoroughly and regularly, healthcare workers can reduce the transmission of pathogens between patients and themselves. This is crucial in preventing healthcare-associated infections. Raising the temperature in each client's room (Choice A) is not an effective method for preventing infection transmission. Assessing vital signs once daily (Choice B) is important for monitoring patient health but is not directly related to preventing infection. Wearing a mask for client care (Choice C) is important in certain situations, but hand hygiene is a more universal and crucial practice for infection prevention. In summary, performing hand hygiene is the priority teaching point as it is the most effective and fundamental measure in preventing infection transmission in a healthcare setting.

Question 4

Select incorrect mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorder.

  1. A. A second exposure to an allergen.
  2. B. Cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens.
  3. C. Exposure of previously 'hidden' self-antigens to the adaptive immune system.
  4. D. Mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: A — A second exposure to an allergen.

The correct answer is A. A second exposure to an allergen does not lead to the development of autoimmune disorders. The key mechanisms involved in autoimmune disorders are self-tolerance breakdown and immune system attacking self-antigens. Explanation: 1. B: Cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens is a possible mechanism for autoimmune disorders. 2. C: Exposure of previously 'hidden' self-antigens to the adaptive immune system can trigger autoimmune responses. 3. D: Mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present can lead to autoimmune disorders, as the immune system may recognize these proteins as foreign. Summary: Choice A is incorrect because a second exposure to an allergen does not cause the immune system to target self-antigens, which is the hallmark of autoimmune disorders. Choices B, C, and D are more plausible mechanisms for the development of autoimmune disorders.

Question 5

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage heart failure experiences paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

  1. A. Administer diuretic medications to reduce fluid overload.
  2. B. Elevate the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics.
  3. C. Encourage the patient to sleep in a reclined position to minimize dyspnea.
  4. D. Refer the patient to a sleep specialist for evaluation and treatment.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: B — Elevate the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics.

Elevating the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics is the most appropriate intervention for managing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea in a patient with end-stage heart failure. By keeping the head of the bed elevated, gravity helps reduce the pooling of fluid in the lungs, making it easier for the patient to breathe and reducing dyspnea. This strategy can help improve oxygenation and decrease the sensation of breathlessness, providing relief for the patient. Administering diuretic medications (Option A) can also be beneficial to reduce fluid overload, although positioning remains a key intervention. Encouraging the patient to sleep in a reclined position (Option C) can help alleviate symptoms, but specifically elevating the head of the bed is a more targeted approach. Referring the patient to a sleep specialist (Option D) may not be necessary at this time, as the primary concern is managing the acute symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

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Question 6

The patient has arrived in the short stay unit for an infusion of tositumomab with 131 tositumomab (Bexxar). Before beginning the infusion, the nurse assesses the patient's vital signs and finds the patient has a temperature of 101.5°F, What is the nurse's priority action?

  1. A. Holding the infusion until patient is afebrile
  2. B. Notifying the physician
  3. C. Starting the infusion and inform the physician
  4. D. Treating the fever before beginning the therapy
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Question 7

A client with a history of heart failure and hypertension is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The client is on Lisinopril (Prinivil) and warfarin (Coumadin). The client reports new onset cough. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

  1. A. Assess the client's lung sounds and oxygenation.
  2. B. Instruct the client on another antihypertensive.
  3. C. Obtain a set of vital signs and document them.
  4. D. Remind the client that cough is a side effect of Prinivil.
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Question 8

A patient admitted to the ICU develops severe sepsis with refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's septic shock?

  1. A. Administer vasopressor medications to restore vascular tone.
  2. B. Perform blood cultures to identify the causative pathogen.
  3. C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics targeting likely pathogens.
  4. D. Recommend prophylactic anticoagulation to prevent thrombosis.
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Question 9

A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute renal failure requiring renal replacement therapy (RRT). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to initiate RRT?

  1. A. Insertion of a temporary hemodialysis catheter.
  2. B. Placement of a peritoneal dialysis catheter.
  3. C. Initiation of continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT).
  4. D. Administration of loop diuretics to enhance urine output.
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Question 10

While suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on a ventilator, the nurse notices an increase in the client's heart rate from 86/min to 110/min, with irregularity. What should the nurse do next?

  1. A. Obtain a cardiology consult.
  2. B. Suction the client less frequently.
  3. C. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
  4. D. Perform pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning.
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Question 11

A nurse is planning an in-service on preventing infection for the staff nurses on a hospital's medical-surgical unit. Which of the following should be the priority teaching point for this in-service?

  1. A. Raising the temperature in each client's room
  2. B. Assessing vital signs once daily
  3. C. Wearing a mask for client care
  4. D. Performing hand hygiene
Answer and rationale unlock in the Nursier study hub. Unlock answers

Question 12

What is a defining characteristic of immunology as a scientific field?

  1. A. It is largely static, with few modern discoveries
  2. B. It is a dynamic field, continually evolving through research
  3. C. It exclusively studies pathogen biology
  4. D. It focuses solely on innate immunity
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Question 13

A patient presents with recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Vestibular function tests demonstrate unilateral weakness. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

  1. A. Vestibular neuritis
  2. B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
  3. C. Ménière's disease
  4. D. Acoustic neuroma
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Question 14

What is a defining characteristic of immunology as a scientific field?

  1. A. It is largely static, with few modern discoveries
  2. B. It is a dynamic field, continually evolving through research
  3. C. It exclusively studies pathogen biology
  4. D. It focuses solely on innate immunity
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Question 15

Skin colour is determined by which pigment?

  1. A. melanin
  2. B. carotene
  3. C. haemoglobin
  4. D. all of the above
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About these RN exams medical-surgical questions

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 14 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.

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