RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 14
RN exams · medical-surgical
RN exams medical-surgical practice questionsset 14
You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five medical-surgical questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What is the primary cause of anaphylaxis?
A. Immune complex deposition
B. Systemic release of vasoactive mediators
C. Localized mast cell degranulation
D. T cell activation
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Systemic release of vasoactive mediators
The correct answer is B: Systemic release of vasoactive mediators. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that is primarily caused by the systemic release of vasoactive mediators such as histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes from mast cells and basophils. These mediators lead to widespread vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, bronchoconstriction, and systemic hypotension, resulting in the characteristic symptoms of anaphylaxis.
Choice A (Immune complex deposition) is incorrect because anaphylaxis is not caused by the deposition of immune complexes but rather by the immediate hypersensitivity reaction.
Choice C (Localized mast cell degranulation) is incorrect because anaphylaxis involves systemic mast cell degranulation leading to widespread effects throughout the body, not just localized reactions.
Choice D (T cell activation) is incorrect because anaphylaxis is primarily mediated by IgE antibodies and mast cells, not T cells.
Question 2
Which immune system function is most relevant to cancer?
A. Suppressing cytokine release
B. Promoting adaptive immunity only
C. Identifying and eliminating abnormal cells
D. Limiting the effectiveness of phagocytes
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Identifying and eliminating abnormal cells
The correct answer is C: Identifying and eliminating abnormal cells. This function is most relevant to cancer because the immune system's ability to recognize and destroy abnormal cells is crucial in preventing the development and spread of cancer. The immune system constantly surveys the body for cells that have mutated or become cancerous, and when identified, it initiates an immune response to eliminate them. This process is essential for maintaining the body's health and preventing cancerous cells from proliferating.
Choice A (Suppressing cytokine release) is incorrect because cytokines play a role in regulating the immune response, which can be important in cancer immunity. Choice B (Promoting adaptive immunity only) is incorrect as both innate and adaptive immune responses are involved in combating cancer. Choice D (Limiting the effectiveness of phagocytes) is incorrect as phagocytes are important in recognizing and destroying cancer cells.
Question 3
A nurse is planning an in-service on preventing infection for the staff nurses on a hospital's medical-surgical unit. Which of the following should be the priority teaching point for this in-service?
A. Raising the temperature in each client's room
B. Assessing vital signs once daily
C. Wearing a mask for client care
D. Performing hand hygiene
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Performing hand hygiene
The correct answer is D: Performing hand hygiene. Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. By washing hands thoroughly and regularly, healthcare workers can reduce the transmission of pathogens between patients and themselves. This is crucial in preventing healthcare-associated infections.
Raising the temperature in each client's room (Choice A) is not an effective method for preventing infection transmission. Assessing vital signs once daily (Choice B) is important for monitoring patient health but is not directly related to preventing infection. Wearing a mask for client care (Choice C) is important in certain situations, but hand hygiene is a more universal and crucial practice for infection prevention.
In summary, performing hand hygiene is the priority teaching point as it is the most effective and fundamental measure in preventing infection transmission in a healthcare setting.
Question 4
Select incorrect mechanism for the development of autoimmune disorder.
A. A second exposure to an allergen.
B. Cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens.
C. Exposure of previously 'hidden' self-antigens to the adaptive immune system.
D. Mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: A — A second exposure to an allergen.
The correct answer is A. A second exposure to an allergen does not lead to the development of autoimmune disorders. The key mechanisms involved in autoimmune disorders are self-tolerance breakdown and immune system attacking self-antigens.
Explanation:
1. B: Cross-reaction of antibodies formed against foreign antigens with self-antigens is a possible mechanism for autoimmune disorders.
2. C: Exposure of previously 'hidden' self-antigens to the adaptive immune system can trigger autoimmune responses.
3. D: Mutation followed by the appearance of membrane proteins not previously present can lead to autoimmune disorders, as the immune system may recognize these proteins as foreign.
Summary:
Choice A is incorrect because a second exposure to an allergen does not cause the immune system to target self-antigens, which is the hallmark of autoimmune disorders. Choices B, C, and D are more plausible mechanisms for the development of autoimmune disorders.
Question 5
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage heart failure experiences paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
A. Administer diuretic medications to reduce fluid overload.
B. Elevate the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics.
C. Encourage the patient to sleep in a reclined position to minimize dyspnea.
D. Refer the patient to a sleep specialist for evaluation and treatment.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Elevate the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics.
Elevating the head of the bed to improve respiratory mechanics is the most appropriate intervention for managing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea in a patient with end-stage heart failure. By keeping the head of the bed elevated, gravity helps reduce the pooling of fluid in the lungs, making it easier for the patient to breathe and reducing dyspnea. This strategy can help improve oxygenation and decrease the sensation of breathlessness, providing relief for the patient. Administering diuretic medications (Option A) can also be beneficial to reduce fluid overload, although positioning remains a key intervention. Encouraging the patient to sleep in a reclined position (Option C) can help alleviate symptoms, but specifically elevating the head of the bed is a more targeted approach. Referring the patient to a sleep specialist (Option D) may not be necessary at this time, as the primary concern is managing the acute symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
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Question 6
The patient has arrived in the short stay unit for an infusion of tositumomab with 131 tositumomab (Bexxar). Before beginning the infusion, the nurse assesses the patient's vital signs and finds the patient has a temperature of 101.5°F, What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Holding the infusion until patient is afebrile
B. Notifying the physician
C. Starting the infusion and inform the physician
D. Treating the fever before beginning the therapy
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Treating the fever before beginning the therapy. Fever can be a sign of infection or other serious underlying issues. Before starting the infusion, it is crucial to address the fever to prevent potential complications. The step-by-step rationale is: 1. Assess the patient's vital signs - In this case, the patient has a temperature of 101.5°F. 2. Recognize the significance of fever - Fever can indicate infection or other health concerns. 3. Prioritize patient safety - Treating the fever before starting the infusion ensures the patient's well-being. 4. Prevent potential adverse reactions - Infusing tositumomab with a fever could exacerbate the patient's condition. 5. Collaborate with the healthcare team - Once the fever is treated, the therapy can be safely initiated.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Holding the infusion until the patient is afebrile - This delays necessary treatment and does not address the underlying issue causing
A client with a history of heart failure and hypertension is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The client is on Lisinopril (Prinivil) and warfarin (Coumadin). The client reports new onset cough. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Assess the client's lung sounds and oxygenation.
B. Instruct the client on another antihypertensive.
C. Obtain a set of vital signs and document them.
D. Remind the client that cough is a side effect of Prinivil.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: Assess the client's lung sounds and oxygenation. This is the most appropriate action because Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause a side effect of cough due to bradykinin accumulation in the lungs. This cough can indicate potential pulmonary edema or bronchospasm. Assessing lung sounds and oxygenation can help determine the severity of the cough and any respiratory distress. It is crucial to evaluate the client's respiratory status promptly to prevent further complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: Instructing the client on another antihypertensive is not appropriate without assessing the current situation.
C: Obtaining vital signs is important but assessing the respiratory status takes precedence due to potential respiratory distress.
D: Reminding the client about the side effect of Prinivil is not sufficient; the focus should be on evaluating the current cough and its impact on the client's respiratory status.
A patient admitted to the ICU develops severe sepsis with refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's septic shock?
A. Administer vasopressor medications to restore vascular tone.
B. Perform blood cultures to identify the causative pathogen.
C. Initiate broad-spectrum antibiotics targeting likely pathogens.
D. Recommend prophylactic anticoagulation to prevent thrombosis.
Correct answer:
In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, indicating the presence of septic shock. In septic shock, systemic vasodilation and vascular hyporesponsiveness contribute to hypotension. Therefore, the primary management approach is to restore vascular tone and blood pressure to maintain organ perfusion. Administering vasopressor medications (Choice A) is the crucial intervention to achieve this goal. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine or vasopressin, constrict blood vessels and increase blood pressure, helping to stabilize the patient in septic shock. While options B and C (performing blood cultures and initiating broad-spectrum antibiotics) are important for identifying the causative pathogen and treating the infection, they are secondary to the immediate need for hemodynamic support in septic shock. Prophylactic anticoagulation (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute renal failure requiring renal replacement therapy (RRT). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to initiate RRT?
A. Insertion of a temporary hemodialysis catheter.
B. Placement of a peritoneal dialysis catheter.
C. Initiation of continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT).
D. Administration of loop diuretics to enhance urine output.
Correct answer:
In a critically ill patient admitted to the ICU with acute renal failure requiring renal replacement therapy (RRT), the healthcare team should prioritize the initiation of continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). CRRT is preferred in critically ill patients with hemodynamic instability as it allows for slow and continuous removal of solutes and fluids, making it a safer option compared to intermittent hemodialysis. CRRT can also provide better control of volume status and electrolyte imbalances over a longer period, which is beneficial in critically ill patients who are hemodynamically unstable. Peritoneal dialysis is not commonly used in the ICU setting for acute renal failure requiring RRT, and loop diuretics are not effective in treating acute renal failure. Temporary hemodialysis catheters may also be used, but CRRT is generally preferred in critically ill patients for better hemodynamic tolerance and control of solute and fluid removal.
While suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on a ventilator, the nurse notices an increase in the client's heart rate from 86/min to 110/min, with irregularity. What should the nurse do next?
A. Obtain a cardiology consult.
B. Suction the client less frequently.
C. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
D. Perform pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Perform pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning. In this scenario, the increase in heart rate and irregularity could be due to hypoxia resulting from suctioning. Pre-oxygenation helps to ensure adequate oxygenation before the procedure, preventing hypoxia-induced dysrhythmias. By providing oxygen before suctioning, the nurse can minimize the risk of further complications.
Choice A (Obtain a cardiology consult) is incorrect because immediate action is required to address the potential hypoxia, which can be managed by pre-oxygenation.
Choice B (Suction the client less frequently) is incorrect as it does not address the immediate concern of potential hypoxia leading to dysrhythmias.
Choice C (Administer an antidysrhythmic medication) is incorrect as it is not the initial intervention needed in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of potential hypoxia is essential before considering antidysrhythmic medications.
A nurse is planning an in-service on preventing infection for the staff nurses on a hospital's medical-surgical unit. Which of the following should be the priority teaching point for this in-service?
A. Raising the temperature in each client's room
B. Assessing vital signs once daily
C. Wearing a mask for client care
D. Performing hand hygiene
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Performing hand hygiene. Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. By washing hands thoroughly and regularly, healthcare workers can reduce the transmission of pathogens between patients and themselves. This is crucial in preventing healthcare-associated infections.
Raising the temperature in each client's room (Choice A) is not an effective method for preventing infection transmission. Assessing vital signs once daily (Choice B) is important for monitoring patient health but is not directly related to preventing infection. Wearing a mask for client care (Choice C) is important in certain situations, but hand hygiene is a more universal and crucial practice for infection prevention.
In summary, performing hand hygiene is the priority teaching point as it is the most effective and fundamental measure in preventing infection transmission in a healthcare setting.
What is a defining characteristic of immunology as a scientific field?
A. It is largely static, with few modern discoveries
B. It is a dynamic field, continually evolving through research
C. It exclusively studies pathogen biology
D. It focuses solely on innate immunity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: It is a dynamic field, continually evolving through research. Immunology is constantly evolving due to new discoveries and advancements in technology. Research in immunology leads to a deeper understanding of the immune system and its interactions with pathogens, cancer, and other diseases. This ongoing evolution is essential for the development of new treatments and vaccines.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: It is largely static, with few modern discoveries - This is incorrect as immunology is a rapidly advancing field with numerous breakthroughs and discoveries.
C: It exclusively studies pathogen biology - This is incorrect as immunology also encompasses the study of the immune system's responses to various stimuli, not just pathogens.
D: It focuses solely on innate immunity - This is incorrect as immunology covers both innate and adaptive immunity, as well as the interactions between them.
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of sudden, severe vertigo lasting hours, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and nystagmus. Vestibular function tests demonstrate unilateral weakness. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
What is a defining characteristic of immunology as a scientific field?
A. It is largely static, with few modern discoveries
B. It is a dynamic field, continually evolving through research
C. It exclusively studies pathogen biology
D. It focuses solely on innate immunity
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: It is a dynamic field, continually evolving through research. Immunology is constantly evolving due to new discoveries and advancements in technology. Research in immunology leads to a deeper understanding of the immune system and its interactions with pathogens, cancer, and other diseases. This ongoing evolution is essential for the development of new treatments and vaccines.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: It is largely static, with few modern discoveries - This is incorrect as immunology is a rapidly advancing field with numerous breakthroughs and discoveries.
C: It exclusively studies pathogen biology - This is incorrect as immunology also encompasses the study of the immune system's responses to various stimuli, not just pathogens.
D: It focuses solely on innate immunity - This is incorrect as immunology covers both innate and adaptive immunity, as well as the interactions between them.
Skin color primarily results from melanin, produced by melanocytes in the epidermis's stratum basale. Melanin's variants eumelanin (dark) and pheomelanin (light) absorb UV light, determining skin tone from pale to dark, with higher levels in sun-adapted populations. Carotene, a yellow-orange pigment from diet, accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermis, subtly tinting lighter skin but not dominating color. Haemoglobin, in dermal blood vessels, adds pink or red hues, especially in fair skin, varying with oxygenation blue in cyanosis, red when flushed. While all three contribute, melanin is the primary determinant, as its concentration and distribution dictate the skin's base color, overshadowing carotene's minor role and haemoglobin's vascular effect. Dermatological research emphasizes melanin's evolutionary and protective significance, with carotene and haemoglobin as secondary modifiers, making it the key pigment in skin coloration.
RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 14 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.