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RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 13

RN exams · medical-surgical

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions set 13

You practice adult health stems across systems, then name the action that changes the outcome. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five medical-surgical questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

What nursing measure assumes priority for Mr. Johnson with sudden diarrhea and high fever?

  1. A. Determine if he had been working on an air-conditioning unit of a high-rise building
  2. B. Place the patient in isolation
  3. C. Monitor respiratory status carefully and observe for signs of hypoxia
  4. D. Begin discharge teaching
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Monitor respiratory status carefully and observe for signs of hypoxia

The correct answer is C, to monitor respiratory status and observe for signs of hypoxia. This is because sudden diarrhea and high fever can indicate a potential infectious illness, which can lead to respiratory complications such as pneumonia. Monitoring respiratory status is crucial to detect any signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia early on. A: Determining his work on an air-conditioning unit is not a priority at this time as it does not directly address his immediate health concerns. B: Placing the patient in isolation may be necessary later depending on the diagnosis, but it is not the priority at this moment. D: Beginning discharge teaching is not appropriate as the patient is currently experiencing acute symptoms that require immediate attention. In summary, monitoring respiratory status is the priority to ensure early detection and intervention for any potential respiratory complications in a patient with sudden diarrhea and high fever.

Question 2

Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find when performing admission assessment?

  1. A. Rapid progressive muscular atrophy.
  2. B. Ascending paralysis with ataxia .
  3. C. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
  4. D. Paresthesia and muscle weakness of upper body.
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Paresthesia and muscle weakness of upper body.

When performing an admission assessment, the nurse should expect to find clinical manifestations that are indicative of a variety of conditions. Paresthesia (abnormal sensation like tingling, prickling, or numbness) and muscle weakness of the upper body are commonly associated with neurological conditions such as peripheral neuropathy or cervical radiculopathy. These symptoms suggest dysfunction in the nerves that supply the upper body muscles, leading to sensory changes and weakness. This finding would prompt further assessment and evaluation by healthcare providers to determine the underlying cause and appropriate interventions. Rapid progressive muscular atrophy, ascending paralysis with ataxia, and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes are not typically expected findings during an admission assessment and may signal more specific neurological conditions such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, or spinal cord injury, respectively.

Question 3

Multi-photon microscopy has proved to be an invaluable tool for the evaluation of the dynamics of immune responses in vivo. The following is a list of observations derived from intra-vital microscopy. Identify the incorrect statement.

  1. A. T cells make stable and prolonged contacts with APC presenting the specific antigen in the paracortex
  2. B. In the absence of antigens B cells move at the same speed and randomly in follicles
  3. C. In the presence of infection specific B cells quickly direct themselves towards the source of antigen
  4. D. Dendritic cells move rapidly through the germinal centre during an immune response
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Dendritic cells move rapidly through the germinal centre during an immune response

The correct answer is D because dendritic cells do not typically move rapidly through the germinal center during an immune response. Dendritic cells usually interact with T cells in the paracortex to present antigens, and they are not known to migrate rapidly through the germinal center. A: This statement is correct as T cells do make stable and prolonged contacts with APCs in the paracortex during immune responses. B: This statement is incorrect as B cells do not move at the same speed and randomly in follicles in the absence of antigens. They respond to signals and cues in the microenvironment. C: This statement is correct as specific B cells can quickly direct themselves towards the source of antigen during an infection. In summary, choice D is incorrect because dendritic cells do not move rapidly through the germinal center during an immune response, while the other choices accurately describe behaviors of immune cells during immune responses.

Question 4

Which of the following is not a physiological possibility of the integument?

  1. A. elimination of certain body salts, urea, and uric acid
  2. B. absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, steroid hormones, and certain toxic chemicals
  3. C. storage of lipids
  4. D. synthesis of proteins and carbohydrates
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — synthesis of proteins and carbohydrates

The integument performs diverse physiological roles. It eliminates salts, urea, and uric acid through sweat, a minor excretory function alongside the kidneys. It absorbs fat-soluble vitamins (e.g., A, D, E, K), steroids, and toxins through its lipid-rich layers, as seen in transdermal drug delivery. The hypodermis stores lipids as adipose tissue, providing energy and insulation. However, the skin does not synthesize proteins and carbohydrates. It produces keratin (a protein) and vitamin D (a sterol), but this involves assembly from dietary precursors, not de novo carbohydrate or protein synthesis, which occurs in the liver or muscles. Keratin forms via epidermal differentiation, not true synthesis, and carbohydrates are not made in skin cells. This limitation reflects the integument's specialized roles protection, sensation, and minor excretion versus metabolic organs' broader synthetic capacities, making this the impossible function among the options.

Question 5

A nurse working on a cardiac unit delegated taking vital signs to an experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Four hours later, the nurse notes the client's blood pressure is much higher than previous readings & the client's mental status has changed. What action by the nurse would most likely have prevented this negative outcome?

  1. A. Determining if the UAP knew how to take blood pressure
  2. B. Double-checking the UAP by taking another blood pressure
  3. C. Providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP
  4. D. Taking the blood pressure instead of delegating the task
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: C — Providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP

The correct answer is C: Providing more appropriate supervision of the UAP. By providing adequate supervision, the nurse can ensure that the UAP is performing tasks correctly and can intervene if any issues arise. This would have likely prevented the negative outcome as the nurse could have identified the high blood pressure and changed mental status earlier. A: Determining if the UAP knew how to take blood pressure - While assessing the UAP's competence is important, it does not address the need for ongoing supervision and oversight. B: Double-checking the UAP by taking another blood pressure - This approach does not address the root cause of the issue, which is the lack of appropriate supervision. D: Taking the blood pressure instead of delegating the task - This is not a sustainable solution as delegating tasks to UAPs is a common practice in healthcare settings. Providing appropriate supervision is key to ensuring safe and effective delegation.

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Question 6

A patient admitted to the ICU develops septic shock with refractory hypotension despite fluid resuscitation. Which intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to improve the patient's hemodynamic status?

  1. A. Administer vasopressor medications to increase systemic vascular resistance.
  2. B. Initiate continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) for fluid removal.
  3. C. Perform a bedside echocardiogram to assess cardiac function.
  4. D. Recommend a transfusion of packed red blood cells to optimize oxygen delivery.
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Question 7

Which of the following situations will the nurse consider as risks factors for complicated grief?

  1. A. Childbirth, marriage and divorce
  2. B. Death of a spouse, child, death by suicide
  3. C. Inadequate perception of the grieving process
  4. D. Inadequate support and old age
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Question 8

A postpartum client reports feeling emotional and tearful despite no apparent physical discomfort. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address the client's emotional well-being?

  1. A. Providing opportunities for rest and sleep
  2. B. Educating the client about the "baby blues" phenomenon
  3. C. Encouraging the client to engage in self-care activities
  4. D. Referring the client to a mental health professional
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Question 9

When a patient arrives in the emergency department with a facial fracture, which action will the nurse take first?

  1. A. Assess for nasal bleeding and pain.
  2. B. Apply ice to the face to reduce swelling.
  3. C. Use a cervical collar to stabilize the spine.
  4. D. Check the patient’s alertness and orientation.
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Question 10

Which immune system function is most relevant to cancer?

  1. A. Suppressing cytokine release
  2. B. Promoting adaptive immunity only
  3. C. Identifying and eliminating abnormal cells
  4. D. Limiting the effectiveness of phagocytes
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Question 11

A client with a history of heart failure and hypertension is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The client is on Lisinopril (Prinivil) and warfarin (Coumadin). The client reports new onset cough. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

  1. A. Assess the client's lung sounds and oxygenation.
  2. B. Instruct the client on another antihypertensive.
  3. C. Obtain a set of vital signs and document them.
  4. D. Remind the client that cough is a side effect of Prinivil.
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Question 12

The patient has arrived in the short stay unit for an infusion of tositumomab with 131 tositumomab (Bexxar). Before beginning the infusion, the nurse assesses the patient's vital signs and finds the patient has a temperature of 101.5°F, What is the nurse's priority action?

  1. A. Holding the infusion until patient is afebrile
  2. B. Notifying the physician
  3. C. Starting the infusion and inform the physician
  4. D. Treating the fever before beginning the therapy
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Question 13

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage pancreatic cancer experiences severe abdominal pain. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

  1. A. Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate pain.
  2. B. Initiate enteral nutrition to support nutritional needs.
  3. C. Recommend hot compresses or heating pads for abdominal comfort.
  4. D. Refer the patient to a gastroenterologist for evaluation and treatment.
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Question 14

Which immune system function is most relevant to cancer?

  1. A. Suppressing cytokine release
  2. B. Promoting adaptive immunity only
  3. C. Identifying and eliminating abnormal cells
  4. D. Limiting the effectiveness of phagocytes
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Question 15

Which layer is a tattoo's ink injected into?

  1. A. Epidermis
  2. B. Dermis
  3. C. Hypodermis
  4. D. SubQ
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About these RN exams medical-surgical questions

RN exams medical-surgical practice questions, set 13 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.

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