RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 17
RN exams · gastrointestinal
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questionsset 17
You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five gastrointestinal questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
What was one of the key findings from the Commonwealth Fund Biennial Health Insurance Survey?
A. Medicaid enrollees have more access to healthcare than privately insured individuals
B. Medicaid enrollees fare better than uninsured and privately insured individuals when it comes to paying medical bills
C. Medicaid enrollees have less access to healthcare than privately insured individuals
D. Medicaid enrollees fare worse than uninsured and privately insured individuals when it comes to paying medical bills
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Medicaid enrollees fare better than uninsured and privately insured individuals when it comes to paying medical bills
The correct answer is B: Medicaid enrollees fare better than uninsured and privately insured individuals when it comes to paying medical bills. This is supported by the key finding from the Commonwealth Fund Biennial Health Insurance Survey, which highlights that Medicaid enrollees have lower out-of-pocket costs and are less likely to face medical bill-related financial issues compared to uninsured and privately insured individuals. This conclusion is drawn from analyzing data on healthcare affordability and financial security among different insurance groups. The other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the actual findings of the survey, which emphasize the financial benefits of Medicaid coverage for individuals in terms of paying medical bills.
Question 2
Corticosteroid medications are associated with the development of peptic ulcers because of which probable pathophysiologic mechanism?
A. The enzyme urease is produced.
B. Secretion of hydrochloric acid is increased.
C. The rate of mucous cell renewal is decreased.
D. The synthesis of mucus and prostaglandins is inhibited.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — The synthesis of mucus and prostaglandins is inhibited.
The correct answer is D because corticosteroids inhibit the synthesis of mucus and prostaglandins, which are important for protecting the stomach lining. Without enough mucus and prostaglandins, the stomach lining becomes more susceptible to damage from stomach acid, leading to the development of peptic ulcers.
Choice A is incorrect because the enzyme urease is associated with the development of Helicobacter pylori infection, not peptic ulcers directly. Choice B is incorrect because corticosteroids actually decrease hydrochloric acid secretion. Choice C is incorrect because a decreased rate of mucous cell renewal would lead to decreased mucus production, which could contribute to peptic ulcers, but it is not the primary mechanism associated with corticosteroids.
Question 3
What was one of the key findings from the Commonwealth Fund Biennial Health Insurance Survey?
A. Medicaid enrollees have more access to healthcare than privately insured individuals
B. Medicaid enrollees fare better than uninsured and privately insured individuals when it comes to paying medical bills
C. Medicaid enrollees have less access to healthcare than privately insured individuals
D. Medicaid enrollees fare worse than uninsured and privately insured individuals when it comes to paying medical bills
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Medicaid enrollees fare better than uninsured and privately insured individuals when it comes to paying medical bills
The correct answer is B: Medicaid enrollees fare better than uninsured and privately insured individuals when it comes to paying medical bills. This is supported by the key finding from the Commonwealth Fund Biennial Health Insurance Survey, which highlights that Medicaid enrollees have lower out-of-pocket costs and are less likely to face medical bill-related financial issues compared to uninsured and privately insured individuals. This conclusion is drawn from analyzing data on healthcare affordability and financial security among different insurance groups. The other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the actual findings of the survey, which emphasize the financial benefits of Medicaid coverage for individuals in terms of paying medical bills.
Question 4
The nurse is educating a patient that is a member of a health maintenance organization (HMO). Which information should the nurse include?
A. Seek the opinion of an alternate health care provider.
B. Obtain insurance approval for medical services prior to treatment.
C. Provide detailed documentation of all care received for his condition.
D. Wait at least 6 months to see a specialist.
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Obtain insurance approval for medical services prior to treatment.
The correct answer is B: 'Obtain insurance approval for medical services prior to treatment.' For patients in a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO), it is important to understand that pre-approval from the insurance company is typically required before receiving medical services to ensure coverage. This step is crucial in preventing unexpected out-of-pocket expenses. Seeking the opinion of an alternate health care provider (A) may not be necessary if the patient is satisfied with the care received within the HMO network. Providing detailed documentation of care (C) is important for medical records but not specific to being a member of an HMO. Waiting 6 months to see a specialist (D) could delay necessary care and is not a standard practice within an HMO setting.
Question 5
Which of the following interventions should be considered the highest priority when caring for June, who has hemiparesis secondary to a stroke?
A. Position June in an upright lateral position
B. Perform range of motion exercises
C. Apply antiembolic stockings
D. Use hand rolls or pillows for support
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Apply antiembolic stockings
The correct answer is C, 'Apply antiembolic stockings'. In the case of a patient who has experienced a stroke and is suffering from hemiparesis, the highest priority intervention is to prevent further complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be life-threatening. Antiembolic stockings are used to increase venous blood flow velocity and reduce the risk of DVT. Choice 'A', positioning June in an upright lateral position, while important for overall care, is not the highest priority. Choice 'B', performing range of motion exercises, is an important part of recovery but not the immediate priority. Choice 'D', using hand rolls or pillows for support, is also a valuable intervention but does not address the most pressing risk of further complications.
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Question 6
The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic heart failure. Which finding indicates that the patient\'s condition is worsening?
A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
B. Clear lung sounds
C. Decreased peripheral edema
D. Improved exercise tolerance
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A: "Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours." In a patient with chronic heart failure, sudden weight gain can be a sign of fluid retention and worsening heart function. This is due to the heart's decreased ability to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the body. Monitoring weight is crucial in managing heart failure as it reflects changes in fluid status. Clear lung sounds (B) and decreased peripheral edema (C) are actually positive signs, indicating improved heart function and reduced fluid retention. Improved exercise tolerance (D) also suggests better heart function. Therefore, the most concerning finding among the options provided is the sudden weight gain, which should prompt further assessment and intervention by the nurse.
If the ionic composition of the ICF and the ECF is different, why is the osmolarity of both the same?
A. because the overall concentrations of nonpenetrating solutes is the same
B. because the plasma membrane is freely permeable to the major ions of the ECF and ICF
C. because protein concentration in the ECF and ICF is the same
D. The osmolarity of the ECF and ICF is not the sam
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because osmolarity is determined by the total concentration of solutes, both penetrating and non-penetrating, in a solution. In this case, even though the ionic composition may be different between the intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF), the osmolarity remains the same because the overall concentrations of nonpenetrating solutes are equal in both compartments. Choices B and C are incorrect because the permeability of the plasma membrane and protein concentrations do not directly affect osmolarity. Choice D is incorrect because osmolarity refers to the concentration of solutes in a solution, and in this context, it is stated that the osmolarity of both compartments is the same despite the ionic composition differences.
Which single statement below, about the stomach, is actually correct?
A. Acid secretion occurs in response to secretion of the hormone, carbonic anhydrase
B. Glands called Peyer's patches are responsible for acid secretion
C. The vagus nerve inhibits acid secretion after a meal has been consumed
D. Pepsinogen and gastric lipase are two enzymes secreted into the lumen of the stomach
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D because pepsinogen and gastric lipase are indeed two enzymes secreted into the lumen of the stomach. Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin, an enzyme that breaks down proteins, while gastric lipase helps in the digestion of fats.
A is incorrect because carbonic anhydrase is not a hormone but an enzyme involved in acid secretion.
B is incorrect because Peyer's patches are actually found in the small intestine, not the stomach, and they are involved in the immune system.
C is incorrect because the vagus nerve stimulates, rather than inhibits, acid secretion in response to a meal.
In summary, D is correct as it accurately describes enzymes secreted in the stomach, while the other choices contain factual inaccuracies about stomach function.
If the ionic composition of the ICF and the ECF is different, why is the osmolarity of both the same?
A. because the overall concentrations of nonpenetrating solutes is the same
B. because the plasma membrane is freely permeable to the major ions of the ECF and ICF
C. because protein concentration in the ECF and ICF is the same
D. The osmolarity of the ECF and ICF is not the sam
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because osmolarity is determined by the total concentration of solutes, both penetrating and non-penetrating, in a solution. In this case, even though the ionic composition may be different between the intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF), the osmolarity remains the same because the overall concentrations of nonpenetrating solutes are equal in both compartments. Choices B and C are incorrect because the permeability of the plasma membrane and protein concentrations do not directly affect osmolarity. Choice D is incorrect because osmolarity refers to the concentration of solutes in a solution, and in this context, it is stated that the osmolarity of both compartments is the same despite the ionic composition differences.
During an abdominal assessment, a nurse finds pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis on a client. What finding should be reported to the physician?
A. Concave, midline umbilicus
B. Pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis
C. Bowel sound frequency of 15 sounds per minute
D. Absence of a bruit
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis could indicate an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. The pulsation in this area could be the enlargement of the aorta, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures. Reporting this finding to the physician is crucial for further evaluation and intervention.
Choice A (Concave, midline umbilicus) is incorrect because it is a normal finding during an abdominal assessment. Choice C (Bowel sound frequency of 15 sounds per minute) is incorrect as it falls within the normal range of bowel sounds. Choice D (Absence of a bruit) is also incorrect as the absence of a bruit is a normal finding and does not indicate any immediate concern.
During an abdominal assessment, a nurse finds pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis on a client. What finding should be reported to the physician?
A. Concave, midline umbilicus
B. Pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis
C. Bowel sound frequency of 15 sounds per minute
D. Absence of a bruit
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B because pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis could indicate an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. The pulsation in this area could be the enlargement of the aorta, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures. Reporting this finding to the physician is crucial for further evaluation and intervention.
Choice A (Concave, midline umbilicus) is incorrect because it is a normal finding during an abdominal assessment. Choice C (Bowel sound frequency of 15 sounds per minute) is incorrect as it falls within the normal range of bowel sounds. Choice D (Absence of a bruit) is also incorrect as the absence of a bruit is a normal finding and does not indicate any immediate concern.
How is an ear infection that persists for less than 14 days classified?
A. Mastoiditis
B. Chronic Ear Infection
C. Acute Ear Infection
D. Otitis Media
Correct answer:
Acute Ear Infection is the correct answer because it typically refers to an infection that is short-lived and often severe, typically lasting less than 14 days. Chronic Ear Infection (Choice B) is incorrect as it refers to an ear infection that lasts for a long time or recurs often, typically more than three months. Mastoiditis (Choice A) is a complication of a middle ear infection and not an ear infection itself. Otitis Media (Choice D) is a general term for inflammation or infection in the middle ear, which can be either acute or chronic, so it's not specific enough to be the correct answer. Understanding the duration and severity of symptoms can help in identifying the type of ear infection, facilitating appropriate treatment and prevention of complications.
Which of these processes occurs throughout most of the alimentary canal?
A. ingestion
B. propulsion
C. segmentation
D. absorption
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: propulsion. Propulsion is the process of moving food along the alimentary canal through peristalsis, which is the contraction and relaxation of muscles in the digestive tract. This process occurs throughout most of the alimentary canal, including the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. Ingestion (choice A) occurs at the beginning of the digestive process when food enters the mouth. Segmentation (choice C) is a mixing movement that occurs mainly in the small intestine to aid in digestion. Absorption (choice D) takes place primarily in the small intestine, where nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream. Therefore, propulsion is the correct answer as it is the continuous movement of food along the digestive tract.
Which of these processes occurs throughout most of the alimentary canal?
A. ingestion
B. propulsion
C. segmentation
D. absorption
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: propulsion. Propulsion is the process of moving food along the alimentary canal through peristalsis, which is the contraction and relaxation of muscles in the digestive tract. This process occurs throughout most of the alimentary canal, including the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine. Ingestion (choice A) occurs at the beginning of the digestive process when food enters the mouth. Segmentation (choice C) is a mixing movement that occurs mainly in the small intestine to aid in digestion. Absorption (choice D) takes place primarily in the small intestine, where nutrients are absorbed into the bloodstream. Therefore, propulsion is the correct answer as it is the continuous movement of food along the digestive tract.
After failure of less restrictive measures, the nurse decides to apply physical restraints to a confused older adult man. Which measure(s) must the nurse include to ensure safe use of physical restraints? (Select all that apply.)
A. Promptly attend to the toileting needs of the patient.
B. Reevaluate use of the restraints every shift.
C. Ensure adequate nutrition and hydration.
D. Administer scheduled doses of sedative-hypnotics.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: 'Reevaluate use of the restraints every shift.' This measure is crucial to ensure the safe use of physical restraints on a confused older adult man. Regular reevaluation helps the nurse assess the ongoing need for restraints, monitor the patient's condition, and make adjustments as necessary. Option A, attending to toileting needs, is important but not specific to the safe use of restraints. Option C, ensuring nutrition and hydration, is essential for overall patient care but not specific to restraint use. Option D, administering sedative-hypnotics, is contraindicated as it can exacerbate confusion and increase the risk of harm. Regular reevaluation of restraint use is a best practice to prevent complications and ensure patient safety.
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 17 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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