RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 7
RN exams · gastrointestinal
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questionsset 7
You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five gastrointestinal questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
Medication for treating high blood cholesterol levels should not be used for most people unless:
A. The patient has at least three major risk factors for coronary heart disease
B. The patient has been experiencing symptoms of coronary heart disease for at least three months
C. The patient's medical insurance covers prescription drugs
D. Treatment with Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) alone is unsuccessful after three months
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Treatment with Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) alone is unsuccessful after three months
The correct answer is choice D because medication for high cholesterol is typically not considered unless Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC), which include diet and exercise, have not proven effective after a three-month period. This approach ensures that lifestyle modifications are given a fair chance to lower cholesterol levels before resorting to medication. Choice A is incorrect because the number of risk factors for coronary heart disease does not dictate when to begin medication; it is about the effectiveness of lifestyle changes. Choice B is incorrect as the duration of coronary heart disease symptoms does not determine when to start medication; the focus is on the response to TLC. Choice C is incorrect because the coverage of prescription drugs by the patient's insurance does not influence the medical decision to use medication for high cholesterol; it is based on medical necessity and effectiveness of prior interventions.
Question 2
A sudden decrease in blood volume would be met by increases in epinephrine, antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) and angiotensin II. What EFFECT would the increase in these three hormones ALL HAVE IN COMMON?
A. increased heart rate
B. increased fluid retention and blood volume
C. increased PNS activity
D. vasoconstriction and increased total peripheral resistance
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — vasoconstriction and increased total peripheral resistance
The correct answer is D: vasoconstriction and increased total peripheral resistance. Epinephrine, antidiuretic hormone, and angiotensin II all act to increase vasoconstriction, leading to an increase in total peripheral resistance. This response is crucial during a sudden decrease in blood volume to maintain blood pressure and ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs.
Choice A (increased heart rate) is not correct because while epinephrine can increase heart rate, antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin II do not directly affect heart rate.
Choice B (increased fluid retention and blood volume) is not correct because antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin II can increase fluid retention, but epinephrine does not have this effect.
Choice C (increased PNS activity) is not correct because these hormones actually stimulate the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) leading to vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure, not the parasympath
Question 3
A 50-year-old woman presents with nocturnal pruritus, an elevated alkaline phosphatase of 284 U/L, and normal bilirubin and aminotransferases. She is on no medications and has a normal physical examination. Ultrasound of the liver reveals no ductal abnormalities and no gallstones. What should be the next step?
A. Request an ERCP
B. Obtain a CT scan
C. Check viral serologies
D. Check antimitochondrial antibodies
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Check antimitochondrial antibodies
The correct answer is D: Check antimitochondrial antibodies.
Rationale:
1. The patient's presentation of elevated alkaline phosphatase without bilirubin or aminotransferase elevation suggests a cholestatic pattern of liver injury.
2. Cholestatic pattern with elevated alkaline phosphatase in the setting of a normal physical exam and ultrasound with no ductal abnormalities points towards primary biliary cholangitis (PBC).
3. Antimitochondrial antibodies are highly specific for PBC and should be checked to confirm the diagnosis.
4. Requesting an ERCP is invasive and not indicated at this point. CT scan may not provide relevant information for this specific presentation. Checking viral serologies is not indicated based on the clinical presentation.
Summary:
A: Requesting an ERCP is not the next step.
B: Obtaining a CT scan may not provide relevant information.
C: Checking viral serologies is not indicated at this point.
Question 4
Which of the following statements about the role of the intestine in development of obesity best describes the situation?
A. Obesity occurs because gut hormone secretion becomes deranged and PYY secretion fails to give a satiety signal.
B. The gut/brain signalling pathway controls energy intake to within 2% of requirements, even in people who are morbidly obese
C. The problem is one of greed and gluttony, whereby people override strong satiety signals on a regular basis
D. Flavour signals from tasty, processed food will override satiety signals even after a large meal
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Flavour signals from tasty, processed food will override satiety signals even after a large meal
The correct answer is D because flavor signals from tasty, processed food can indeed override satiety signals even after a large meal. This is due to the hedonic aspect of eating, where the pleasure derived from consuming flavorful foods can lead to overeating despite feeling full. The brain's reward system plays a significant role in this process, causing individuals to continue eating beyond their caloric needs. In contrast, choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the role of the intestine in the development of obesity. Choice A focuses on hormonal imbalances, which can contribute to obesity but does not solely explain the complex nature of obesity development. Choice B oversimplifies the control of energy intake, disregarding the various factors influencing eating behaviors. Choice C places the blame solely on personal choices without considering the physiological and psychological factors that contribute to overeating.
Question 5
Which of the following statements about the role of the intestine in development of obesity best describes the situation?
A. Obesity occurs because gut hormone secretion becomes deranged and PYY secretion fails to give a satiety signal.
B. The gut/brain signalling pathway controls energy intake to within 2% of requirements, even in people who are morbidly obese
C. The problem is one of greed and gluttony, whereby people override strong satiety signals on a regular basis
D. Flavour signals from tasty, processed food will override satiety signals even after a large meal
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Flavour signals from tasty, processed food will override satiety signals even after a large meal
The correct answer is D because flavor signals from tasty, processed food can indeed override satiety signals even after a large meal. This is due to the hedonic aspect of eating, where the pleasure derived from consuming flavorful foods can lead to overeating despite feeling full. The brain's reward system plays a significant role in this process, causing individuals to continue eating beyond their caloric needs. In contrast, choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the role of the intestine in the development of obesity. Choice A focuses on hormonal imbalances, which can contribute to obesity but does not solely explain the complex nature of obesity development. Choice B oversimplifies the control of energy intake, disregarding the various factors influencing eating behaviors. Choice C places the blame solely on personal choices without considering the physiological and psychological factors that contribute to overeating.
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Question 6
Which of the nurse's assigned patients should be referred to the dietitian for a complete nutritional assessment? (Select all that apply.)
A. A 35-yr-old patient who reports intermittent nausea for the past 2 days
B. A 48-yr-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis who takes prednisone daily
C. A 23-yr-old patient who has a history of fluctuating weight gains and losses
D. A 64-yr-old patient who is admitted for debridement of an infected surgical wound
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. This patient reporting intermittent nausea may have altered nutritional intake, which warrants a referral to the dietitian for a complete nutritional assessment. Nausea can affect food intake and nutrient absorption, potentially leading to malnutrition. Options B, C, and D do not directly indicate a need for a dietitian referral based on the information provided. The patient with rheumatoid arthritis taking prednisone may benefit from dietary interventions, but the information provided does not specify any nutritional concerns. The patient with fluctuating weight gains and losses may have nutritional issues, but further details are needed to justify a dietitian referral. The patient admitted for debridement of an infected wound may have increased nutritional needs due to wound healing, but this alone does not warrant a dietitian referral without additional information on the patient's nutritional status.
Which complication of acute pancreatitis requires prompt surgical drainage to prevent sepsis?
A. Tetany
B. Pseudocyst
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pancreatic abscess
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Pancreatic abscess. A pancreatic abscess is a serious complication of acute pancreatitis that can lead to sepsis if not promptly drained surgically. Abscess formation occurs when infected necrotic tissue accumulates in the pancreas. Prompt surgical drainage is necessary to prevent the spread of infection and systemic complications.
A: Tetany is not a complication of acute pancreatitis that requires surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Tetany is associated with hypocalcemia, which can occur in pancreatitis but is managed medically.
B: Pseudocyst is a common complication of pancreatitis but usually resolves spontaneously or can be managed conservatively unless it becomes infected or causes symptoms.
C: Pleural effusion can occur in severe cases of pancreatitis but is managed medically through supportive care and may not always require surgical drainage unless it leads to complications like infection.
Which of the nurse's assigned patients should be referred to the dietitian for a complete nutritional assessment? (Select all that apply.)
A. A 35-yr-old patient who reports intermittent nausea for the past 2 days
B. A 48-yr-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis who takes prednisone daily
C. A 23-yr-old patient who has a history of fluctuating weight gains and losses
D. A 64-yr-old patient who is admitted for debridement of an infected surgical wound
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A. This patient reporting intermittent nausea may have altered nutritional intake, which warrants a referral to the dietitian for a complete nutritional assessment. Nausea can affect food intake and nutrient absorption, potentially leading to malnutrition. Options B, C, and D do not directly indicate a need for a dietitian referral based on the information provided. The patient with rheumatoid arthritis taking prednisone may benefit from dietary interventions, but the information provided does not specify any nutritional concerns. The patient with fluctuating weight gains and losses may have nutritional issues, but further details are needed to justify a dietitian referral. The patient admitted for debridement of an infected wound may have increased nutritional needs due to wound healing, but this alone does not warrant a dietitian referral without additional information on the patient's nutritional status.
D. preventing bacteria from entering the bloodstream
Correct answer:
The role of the small intestine's MALT (Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue) is to prevent bacteria from entering the bloodstream. MALT contains immune cells that help protect the body from harmful pathogens in the gut. When bacteria breach the intestinal barrier, MALT responds by generating an immune response to eliminate the invaders and prevent systemic infection. This function is crucial for maintaining the body's overall health and preventing infections.
Choice A (secreting mucus) is incorrect because mucus secretion is primarily performed by goblet cells in the intestine to lubricate and protect the intestinal lining, not by MALT.
Choice B (buffering acidic chyme) is incorrect as buffering acidic chyme is mainly done by bicarbonate secreted by the pancreas to neutralize stomach acid, not by MALT.
Choice C (activating pepsin) is incorrect as pepsin activation occurs in the stomach, not in the small intestine's MALT.
A 50-year-old man with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has noticed increasingly swollen ankles. He does not have any features of pulmonary oedema but has a raised jugular venous pressure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Asthma
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Constrictive pericarditis
D. Right heart failure
Correct answer:
The most likely diagnosis for the 50-year-old man with swollen ankles, raised jugular venous pressure, and a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is right heart failure (Choice D). In this case, the patient's symptoms suggest signs of right-sided heart failure, such as peripheral edema and jugular venous distention. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease can lead to pulmonary hypertension, causing right heart failure. Asthma (Choice A) is primarily a respiratory condition, not typically associated with jugular venous distention or peripheral edema. Congestive heart failure (Choice B) usually presents with features of pulmonary edema and bilateral lower extremity edema, rather than isolated right-sided heart failure. Constrictive pericarditis (Choice C) may present with jugular venous distention, but it is less common compared to right heart failure in a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Following a thyroidectomy, a patient reports "a tingling feeling around my mouth." Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
A. Verify the serum potassium level.
B. Test for presence of Chvostek's sign.
C. Observe for blood on the neck dressing.
D. Confirm a prescription for thyroid replacement.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Test for presence of Chvostek's sign. After a thyroidectomy, tingling around the mouth could indicate hypocalcemia, which can lead to tetany. Chvostek's sign is a test for hypocalcemia, where facial twitching occurs when the facial nerve is tapped. This assessment is crucial to identify potential complications and initiate timely interventions.
Incorrect choices:
A: Verify the serum potassium level - While electrolyte imbalances can occur post-thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia is more likely to cause the tingling sensation around the mouth.
C: Observe for blood on the neck dressing - While assessing for bleeding is important, it does not directly address the tingling sensation reported by the patient.
D: Confirm a prescription for thyroid replacement - While important for long-term management post-thyroidectomy, it does not address the immediate concern of tingling sensation related to hypocalcemia.
A 56-year-old Brazilian woman with a history of idiopathic cardiomyopathy presents complaining of weight loss, dysphagia, and regurgitation. A chest x-ray is done that reveals an air-fluid level at the level of the esophagus. No gastric bubble is appreciated. A barium swallow reveals a dilated esophagus that tapers at the lower esophageal sphincter. Which of the following is appropriate in this patient's evaluation/treatment?
A. Refer for partial esophagectomy
B. Thick and thin smears of peripheral blood looking for parasites
C. Therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor
D. Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi. This patient's presentation is consistent with Chagas disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. The patient is from Brazil, where Chagas disease is endemic. The dilated esophagus and lower esophageal sphincter tapering are classic findings of megaesophagus, a complication of Chagas disease. Serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi are necessary for definitive diagnosis.
Choice A: Refer for partial esophagectomy - Not appropriate as surgery is not indicated without confirming the diagnosis.
Choice B: Thick and thin smears of peripheral blood looking for parasites - Not appropriate as Chagas disease is diagnosed through serologic testing, not blood smears.
Choice C: Therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor - Not appropriate as the patient's symptoms are likely due to Chagas disease, not gastroesophageal reflux disease.
Which complication of acute pancreatitis requires prompt surgical drainage to prevent sepsis?
A. Tetany
B. Pseudocyst
C. Pleural effusion
D. Pancreatic abscess
Correct answer:
The correct answer is D: Pancreatic abscess. A pancreatic abscess is a serious complication of acute pancreatitis that can lead to sepsis if not promptly drained surgically. Abscess formation occurs when infected necrotic tissue accumulates in the pancreas. Prompt surgical drainage is necessary to prevent the spread of infection and systemic complications.
A: Tetany is not a complication of acute pancreatitis that requires surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Tetany is associated with hypocalcemia, which can occur in pancreatitis but is managed medically.
B: Pseudocyst is a common complication of pancreatitis but usually resolves spontaneously or can be managed conservatively unless it becomes infected or causes symptoms.
C: Pleural effusion can occur in severe cases of pancreatitis but is managed medically through supportive care and may not always require surgical drainage unless it leads to complications like infection.
The unequal distribution of positively and negatively charged solutes across the plasma membrane is known as what?
A. disequilibrium constant
B. charge separation
C. membrane potential
D. chemical disequilibrium
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: membrane potential. Membrane potential refers to the difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a cell due to the unequal distribution of positively and negatively charged ions across the plasma membrane. This potential difference is crucial for various cellular processes such as nerve conduction and muscle contraction.
A: Disequilibrium constant is a term used in chemical reactions to describe the ratio of product concentrations to reactant concentrations at equilibrium, not related to the distribution of charged solutes in a cell.
B: Charge separation is a generic term and does not specifically refer to the unequal distribution of charged solutes across the plasma membrane.
D: Chemical disequilibrium refers to a state where a system is not at equilibrium in terms of chemical reactions, not directly related to the distribution of charged solutes across the membrane.
Which nursing measure would be most effective in helping the client cough and deep breathe after a cholecystectomy?
A. Having the client take rapid, shallow breaths to decrease pain.
B. Having the client lay on the left side while coughing and deep breathing.
C. Teaching the client to use a folded blanket or pillow to splint the incision.
D. Withholding pain medication so the client can be alert enough to follow the nurse's instructions.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Teaching the client to use a folded blanket or pillow to splint the incision. This measure helps support the incision site, reducing pain during coughing and deep breathing. Splinting the incision promotes effective coughing and deep breathing post-surgery, aiding in lung expansion and preventing complications like atelectasis.
Explanation of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Having the client take rapid, shallow breaths to decrease pain is incorrect as it can lead to inadequate lung expansion and retention of secretions.
B: Having the client lay on the left side while coughing and deep breathing is incorrect as it does not directly support the incision site and may not be as effective in reducing pain.
D: Withholding pain medication so the client can be alert enough to follow the nurse's instructions is incorrect as pain management is crucial post-surgery for comfort and optimal recovery.
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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