RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 7

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RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions set 7

You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.

Five gastrointestinal questions with answers

Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.

Question 1

Medication for treating high blood cholesterol levels should not be used for most people unless:

  1. A. The patient has at least three major risk factors for coronary heart disease
  2. B. The patient has been experiencing symptoms of coronary heart disease for at least three months
  3. C. The patient's medical insurance covers prescription drugs
  4. D. Treatment with Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) alone is unsuccessful after three months
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Treatment with Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC) alone is unsuccessful after three months

The correct answer is choice D because medication for high cholesterol is typically not considered unless Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes (TLC), which include diet and exercise, have not proven effective after a three-month period. This approach ensures that lifestyle modifications are given a fair chance to lower cholesterol levels before resorting to medication. Choice A is incorrect because the number of risk factors for coronary heart disease does not dictate when to begin medication; it is about the effectiveness of lifestyle changes. Choice B is incorrect as the duration of coronary heart disease symptoms does not determine when to start medication; the focus is on the response to TLC. Choice C is incorrect because the coverage of prescription drugs by the patient's insurance does not influence the medical decision to use medication for high cholesterol; it is based on medical necessity and effectiveness of prior interventions.

Question 2

A sudden decrease in blood volume would be met by increases in epinephrine, antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) and angiotensin II. What EFFECT would the increase in these three hormones ALL HAVE IN COMMON?

  1. A. increased heart rate
  2. B. increased fluid retention and blood volume
  3. C. increased PNS activity
  4. D. vasoconstriction and increased total peripheral resistance
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — vasoconstriction and increased total peripheral resistance

The correct answer is D: vasoconstriction and increased total peripheral resistance. Epinephrine, antidiuretic hormone, and angiotensin II all act to increase vasoconstriction, leading to an increase in total peripheral resistance. This response is crucial during a sudden decrease in blood volume to maintain blood pressure and ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs. Choice A (increased heart rate) is not correct because while epinephrine can increase heart rate, antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin II do not directly affect heart rate. Choice B (increased fluid retention and blood volume) is not correct because antidiuretic hormone and angiotensin II can increase fluid retention, but epinephrine does not have this effect. Choice C (increased PNS activity) is not correct because these hormones actually stimulate the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) leading to vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure, not the parasympath

Question 3

A 50-year-old woman presents with nocturnal pruritus, an elevated alkaline phosphatase of 284 U/L, and normal bilirubin and aminotransferases. She is on no medications and has a normal physical examination. Ultrasound of the liver reveals no ductal abnormalities and no gallstones. What should be the next step?

  1. A. Request an ERCP
  2. B. Obtain a CT scan
  3. C. Check viral serologies
  4. D. Check antimitochondrial antibodies
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Check antimitochondrial antibodies

The correct answer is D: Check antimitochondrial antibodies. Rationale: 1. The patient's presentation of elevated alkaline phosphatase without bilirubin or aminotransferase elevation suggests a cholestatic pattern of liver injury. 2. Cholestatic pattern with elevated alkaline phosphatase in the setting of a normal physical exam and ultrasound with no ductal abnormalities points towards primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). 3. Antimitochondrial antibodies are highly specific for PBC and should be checked to confirm the diagnosis. 4. Requesting an ERCP is invasive and not indicated at this point. CT scan may not provide relevant information for this specific presentation. Checking viral serologies is not indicated based on the clinical presentation. Summary: A: Requesting an ERCP is not the next step. B: Obtaining a CT scan may not provide relevant information. C: Checking viral serologies is not indicated at this point.

Question 4

Which of the following statements about the role of the intestine in development of obesity best describes the situation?

  1. A. Obesity occurs because gut hormone secretion becomes deranged and PYY secretion fails to give a satiety signal.
  2. B. The gut/brain signalling pathway controls energy intake to within 2% of requirements, even in people who are morbidly obese
  3. C. The problem is one of greed and gluttony, whereby people override strong satiety signals on a regular basis
  4. D. Flavour signals from tasty, processed food will override satiety signals even after a large meal
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Flavour signals from tasty, processed food will override satiety signals even after a large meal

The correct answer is D because flavor signals from tasty, processed food can indeed override satiety signals even after a large meal. This is due to the hedonic aspect of eating, where the pleasure derived from consuming flavorful foods can lead to overeating despite feeling full. The brain's reward system plays a significant role in this process, causing individuals to continue eating beyond their caloric needs. In contrast, choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the role of the intestine in the development of obesity. Choice A focuses on hormonal imbalances, which can contribute to obesity but does not solely explain the complex nature of obesity development. Choice B oversimplifies the control of energy intake, disregarding the various factors influencing eating behaviors. Choice C places the blame solely on personal choices without considering the physiological and psychological factors that contribute to overeating.

Question 5

Which of the following statements about the role of the intestine in development of obesity best describes the situation?

  1. A. Obesity occurs because gut hormone secretion becomes deranged and PYY secretion fails to give a satiety signal.
  2. B. The gut/brain signalling pathway controls energy intake to within 2% of requirements, even in people who are morbidly obese
  3. C. The problem is one of greed and gluttony, whereby people override strong satiety signals on a regular basis
  4. D. Flavour signals from tasty, processed food will override satiety signals even after a large meal
Show answer and rationale

Correct answer: D — Flavour signals from tasty, processed food will override satiety signals even after a large meal

The correct answer is D because flavor signals from tasty, processed food can indeed override satiety signals even after a large meal. This is due to the hedonic aspect of eating, where the pleasure derived from consuming flavorful foods can lead to overeating despite feeling full. The brain's reward system plays a significant role in this process, causing individuals to continue eating beyond their caloric needs. In contrast, choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the role of the intestine in the development of obesity. Choice A focuses on hormonal imbalances, which can contribute to obesity but does not solely explain the complex nature of obesity development. Choice B oversimplifies the control of energy intake, disregarding the various factors influencing eating behaviors. Choice C places the blame solely on personal choices without considering the physiological and psychological factors that contribute to overeating.

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Question 6

Which of the nurse's assigned patients should be referred to the dietitian for a complete nutritional assessment? (Select all that apply.)

  1. A. A 35-yr-old patient who reports intermittent nausea for the past 2 days
  2. B. A 48-yr-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis who takes prednisone daily
  3. C. A 23-yr-old patient who has a history of fluctuating weight gains and losses
  4. D. A 64-yr-old patient who is admitted for debridement of an infected surgical wound
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Question 7

Which complication of acute pancreatitis requires prompt surgical drainage to prevent sepsis?

  1. A. Tetany
  2. B. Pseudocyst
  3. C. Pleural effusion
  4. D. Pancreatic abscess
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Question 8

Which of the nurse's assigned patients should be referred to the dietitian for a complete nutritional assessment? (Select all that apply.)

  1. A. A 35-yr-old patient who reports intermittent nausea for the past 2 days
  2. B. A 48-yr-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis who takes prednisone daily
  3. C. A 23-yr-old patient who has a history of fluctuating weight gains and losses
  4. D. A 64-yr-old patient who is admitted for debridement of an infected surgical wound
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Question 9

What is the role of the small intestine's MALT?

  1. A. secreting mucus
  2. B. buffering acidic chyme
  3. C. activating pepsin
  4. D. preventing bacteria from entering the bloodstream
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Question 10

A 50-year-old man with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has noticed increasingly swollen ankles. He does not have any features of pulmonary oedema but has a raised jugular venous pressure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. A. Asthma
  2. B. Congestive heart failure
  3. C. Constrictive pericarditis
  4. D. Right heart failure
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Question 11

Following a thyroidectomy, a patient reports "a tingling feeling around my mouth." Which assessment should the nurse complete first?

  1. A. Verify the serum potassium level.
  2. B. Test for presence of Chvostek's sign.
  3. C. Observe for blood on the neck dressing.
  4. D. Confirm a prescription for thyroid replacement.
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Question 12

A 56-year-old Brazilian woman with a history of idiopathic cardiomyopathy presents complaining of weight loss, dysphagia, and regurgitation. A chest x-ray is done that reveals an air-fluid level at the level of the esophagus. No gastric bubble is appreciated. A barium swallow reveals a dilated esophagus that tapers at the lower esophageal sphincter. Which of the following is appropriate in this patient's evaluation/treatment?

  1. A. Refer for partial esophagectomy
  2. B. Thick and thin smears of peripheral blood looking for parasites
  3. C. Therapeutic trial of a proton pump inhibitor
  4. D. Obtain serologic studies for antibodies to Trypanosoma cruzi
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Question 13

Which complication of acute pancreatitis requires prompt surgical drainage to prevent sepsis?

  1. A. Tetany
  2. B. Pseudocyst
  3. C. Pleural effusion
  4. D. Pancreatic abscess
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Question 14

The unequal distribution of positively and negatively charged solutes across the plasma membrane is known as what?

  1. A. disequilibrium constant
  2. B. charge separation
  3. C. membrane potential
  4. D. chemical disequilibrium
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Question 15

Which nursing measure would be most effective in helping the client cough and deep breathe after a cholecystectomy?

  1. A. Having the client take rapid, shallow breaths to decrease pain.
  2. B. Having the client lay on the left side while coughing and deep breathing.
  3. C. Teaching the client to use a folded blanket or pillow to splint the incision.
  4. D. Withholding pain medication so the client can be alert enough to follow the nurse's instructions.
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About these RN exams gastrointestinal questions

RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 7 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.

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