RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 18
RN exams · gastrointestinal
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questionsset 18
You read GI bleed, liver, and nutrition stems and pick the intervention that protects the patient now. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the RN exams exam guide or more RN exams practice questions.
Five gastrointestinal questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
When can a patient's medical record become a potential issue for the doctor or nurse?
A. When the record is extensive
B. When a medical record is subpoenaed in court
C. When it is missing
D. When the medical record is inaccurate, incomplete, or inadequate
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — When the medical record is inaccurate, incomplete, or inadequate
The correct answer is D. A medical record becomes a potential issue for a doctor or a nurse when it is inaccurate, incomplete, or inadequate. This is because a medical record is a key tool for healthcare professionals to track a patient's history, treatment, and progress. If the record is not accurate or complete, it can lead to misdiagnosis, incorrect treatment, or other potential problems in patient care. While missing records (Choice C) could be a problem, they do not directly implicate the doctor or nurse in the same way that inaccurate or inadequate records do. An extensive record (Choice A) or a record being subpoenaed in court (Choice B) are not inherently problematic for healthcare professionals and do not necessarily reflect negatively on their work.
Question 2
When does the amount of H+ generated from CO2 increase?
A. when the rate of protein catabolism is faster than the rate of protein anabolism
B. when the rate of protein catabolism is slower than the rate of protein anabolism
C. when the rate of CO2 removal by the lungs is higher than the rate of CO2 production by the tissues
D. when the rate of CO2 removal by the lungs is less than the rate of CO2 production by the tissues
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — when the rate of CO2 removal by the lungs is less than the rate of CO2 production by the tissues
The correct answer is D because when the rate of CO2 removal by the lungs is less than the rate of CO2 production by the tissues, more CO2 accumulates in the body. This excess CO2 leads to an increase in carbonic acid formation, which then dissociates into H+ ions and bicarbonate ions. Therefore, the amount of H+ generated from CO2 increases in this scenario.
Choice A is incorrect because protein catabolism and anabolism are not directly related to the generation of H+ from CO2.
Choice B is incorrect as a slower rate of protein catabolism compared to anabolism does not impact CO2 levels and H+ generation.
Choice C is incorrect because a higher rate of CO2 removal by the lungs would lead to a decrease in CO2 levels, resulting in less H+ generation.
Question 3
During an abdominal assessment, a nurse finds pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis on a client. What finding should be reported to the physician?
A. Concave, midline umbilicus
B. Pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis
C. Bowel sound frequency of 15 sounds per minute
D. Absence of a bruit
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis
The correct answer is B because pulsation between the umbilicus and pubis could indicate an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. The pulsation in this area could be the enlargement of the aorta, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures. Reporting this finding to the physician is crucial for further evaluation and intervention.
Choice A (Concave, midline umbilicus) is incorrect because it is a normal finding during an abdominal assessment. Choice C (Bowel sound frequency of 15 sounds per minute) is incorrect as it falls within the normal range of bowel sounds. Choice D (Absence of a bruit) is also incorrect as the absence of a bruit is a normal finding and does not indicate any immediate concern.
Question 4
Noninvasive diagnostic procedures used to determine kidney function include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A. Kidney, ureter, bladder (KU
B. x-ray
C. Renal ultrasound
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Renal ultrasound
The correct answer is C: Renal ultrasound. Renal ultrasound is a noninvasive diagnostic procedure commonly used to assess kidney function by visualizing the size, shape, and structure of the kidneys. It can detect abnormalities such as kidney stones or cysts.
A: Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) is an imaging test that provides information on the size and location of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder but does not directly assess kidney function.
B: X-ray can show the outline of the kidneys but is not specific for evaluating kidney function.
D: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a more detailed imaging technique that can provide information about kidney structure but is not typically used as a first-line diagnostic tool for routine kidney function assessment.
Question 5
In which part of the alimentary canal does most digestion occur?
A. stomach
B. proximal small intestine
C. distal small intestine
D. ascending colon
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — proximal small intestine
The correct answer is B: proximal small intestine. Most digestion occurs in the proximal small intestine due to the presence of enzymes such as amylase, lipase, and protease, which break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, respectively. Additionally, bile and pancreatic juices are released in this part of the intestine to aid in digestion. The stomach primarily initiates digestion by breaking down food with stomach acid and enzymes, but the majority of nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the stomach is not the main site of digestion, the distal small intestine is more focused on absorption rather than digestion, and the ascending colon is primarily responsible for water absorption and formation of feces.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
Stems and choices stay public so you can still reason. Correct answers and full rationales unlock with the rest of the bank.
Question 6
The nurse is caring for a patient with tuberculosis (TB). Which precaution should the nurse take to prevent the spread of infection?
A. Wear a surgical mask when entering the patient\'s room.
B. Place the patient in a negative pressure room.
C. Wear gloves when providing direct patient care.
D. Use a gown when entering the patient\'s room.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: "Place the patient in a negative pressure room." Patients with tuberculosis (TB) should be isolated in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of infectious droplets in the air. Negative pressure rooms help contain and filter the air, reducing the risk of transmission to others. Options A, C, and D are important infection control measures, but in the case of TB, placing the patient in a negative pressure room is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection to healthcare workers and other patients. The use of personal protective equipment like masks, gloves, and gowns is also crucial when providing direct care to a patient with TB, but the primary focus should be on isolating the patient in a negative pressure room.
Mandy, an adolescent girl is admitted to an acute care facility with severe malnutrition. After a thorough examination, the physician diagnoses anorexia nervosa. When developing the plan of care for this client, the nurse is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?
A. Hopelessness
B. Powerlessness
C. Chronic low self-esteem
D. Deficient knowledge
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Chronic low self-esteem. In anorexia nervosa, individuals often have distorted body image and low self-esteem, which contributes to their disordered eating behavior. By addressing the nursing diagnosis of chronic low self-esteem, the nurse can focus on interventions to help improve the client's self-worth and body image perception.
A: Hopelessness may be present in anorexia nervosa but chronic low self-esteem is more directly related to the disorder.
B: Powerlessness is not the primary nursing diagnosis in anorexia nervosa; it may be a secondary issue.
D: Deficient knowledge is not the main nursing diagnosis in anorexia nervosa; clients generally have knowledge about their condition but struggle with self-image and self-esteem.
The _____ prevents food from entering the small intestine.
A. cardiac sphincter
B. pyloric valve
C. ileo-colic valve
D. sphincter of Oddi
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: pyloric valve. The pyloric valve is located between the stomach and the small intestine, specifically at the junction of the stomach and the duodenum. Its main function is to regulate the flow of partially digested food from the stomach into the small intestine. This control is crucial to ensure that the small intestine receives food at a manageable rate for optimal digestion and absorption of nutrients. The cardiac sphincter (A) is located at the entrance of the stomach from the esophagus and prevents acid reflux. The ileo-colic valve (C) is located between the small and large intestines, controlling the flow of contents between them. The sphincter of Oddi (D) regulates the flow of bile and pancreatic juice into the small intestine.
The esophagus is different from the GI tract because the esophagus has
A. skeletal muscles at the superior end and smooth muscles at the inferior end.
B. no tunica submucosa.
C. villi and microvilli to increase surface area.
D. no tunica mucosa.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because the esophagus contains skeletal muscles at the superior end (upper part) for voluntary control during swallowing and smooth muscles at the inferior end (lower part) for involuntary peristalsis to move food to the stomach. This arrangement allows for both conscious and unconscious control of food movement.
Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect:
B: The esophagus does have a tunica submucosa, which is important for support and nourishment of the mucosa.
C: Villi and microvilli are found in the small intestine, not the esophagus, and they increase surface area for nutrient absorption.
D: The esophagus does have a tunica mucosa, which contains mucous glands to aid in lubrication and protection of the lining.
The _____ prevents food from entering the small intestine.
A. cardiac sphincter
B. pyloric valve
C. ileo-colic valve
D. sphincter of Oddi
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: pyloric valve. The pyloric valve is located between the stomach and the small intestine, specifically at the junction of the stomach and the duodenum. Its main function is to regulate the flow of partially digested food from the stomach into the small intestine. This control is crucial to ensure that the small intestine receives food at a manageable rate for optimal digestion and absorption of nutrients. The cardiac sphincter (A) is located at the entrance of the stomach from the esophagus and prevents acid reflux. The ileo-colic valve (C) is located between the small and large intestines, controlling the flow of contents between them. The sphincter of Oddi (D) regulates the flow of bile and pancreatic juice into the small intestine.
What is the most effective way to limit the number of microorganisms in the hospital?
A. Using strict aseptic technique in all procedures
B. Wearing a mask and gown when caring for all patients with communicable diseases
C. Sterilizing all instruments
D. Handwashing
Correct answer:
The most effective way to limit the number of microorganisms in the hospital is by using strict aseptic technique in all procedures. This approach ensures that the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms into the hospital environment or patients is minimized. Choice B, wearing a mask and gown when caring for patients with communicable diseases, is important but not as comprehensive as using aseptic technique in all procedures. Sterilizing all instruments (Choice C) is crucial for preventing infections but may not address all avenues of microorganism transmission. Handwashing (Choice D) is a fundamental practice in infection control but alone may not be as effective as utilizing aseptic techniques in all procedures to limit microorganisms in the hospital.
Discuss public financing programs in U.S. healthcare system
A. Medicare, Medicaid, CHIP
B. Medicare, Social Security, ACA
C. Medicaid, Veteran's Affairs, CHIP
D. Medicare, Medicaid, Employer programs
Correct answer:
The correct answer is A because Medicare, Medicaid, and CHIP are all examples of public financing programs in the U.S. healthcare system.
1. Medicare provides health insurance for individuals aged 65 and older.
2. Medicaid offers coverage for low-income individuals and families.
3. CHIP (Children's Health Insurance Program) provides health coverage for children in low-income families.
Choice B is incorrect because Social Security and ACA (Affordable Care Act) are not public financing programs in healthcare.
Choice C is incorrect because Veteran's Affairs is a separate system for military veterans, not a public financing program for the general population.
Choice D is incorrect because employer programs are not considered public financing programs.
.The nutrient facts panel was established by the USDA and the FDA to improve health and well-being by enhancing nutritional knowledge. Nutrient content claims describe a relationship between a food or food component and reduced risk of a disease or health-related condition.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true; the second is false.
D. The first statement is false; the second is true.
Correct answer:
The first statement, that the nutrient facts panel was established by the USDA and the FDA to improve health and well-being by enhancing nutritional knowledge, is true. The nutrient facts panel provides important information about the nutritional content of food products, helping consumers make informed choices. However, the second statement, that nutrient content claims describe a relationship between a food or food component and reduced risk of a disease or health-related condition, is false. Nutrient content claims refer to the presence or amount of specific nutrients in a food product, not to any disease risk reduction. Therefore, option C is correct as it accurately distinguishes the truth of the first statement and the falsity of the second statement.
The nurse is assessing a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which dietary restriction is most appropriate for this patient?
A. Increase protein intake
B. Decrease potassium intake
C. Increase sodium intake
D. Decrease carbohydrate intake
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B: Decrease potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease (CKD), the kidneys are not able to effectively filter out excess potassium from the blood, leading to potential hyperkalemia. By decreasing potassium intake, the patient can help prevent elevated potassium levels which can be dangerous. Protein intake should actually be limited in CKD to reduce the buildup of waste products that the kidneys cannot eliminate. Increasing sodium intake is not recommended as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure, which are common concerns in CKD. Decreasing carbohydrate intake is not specifically indicated in CKD management. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is the most appropriate dietary restriction for a patient with CKD.
The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most effective in improving the patient\'s oxygenation?
A. Administering a bronchodilator
B. Providing high-flow oxygen
C. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing
D. Positioning the patient in a high Fowler\'s position
Correct answer:
Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is the most effective intervention in improving oxygenation for a patient with COPD. Pursed-lip breathing helps to slow down the patient's breathing rate, improve oxygen exchange, and reduce the work of breathing. By prolonging exhalation and maintaining airway pressure, pursed-lip breathing can prevent air trapping and improve oxygen saturation levels. Administering a bronchodilator can help with bronchodilation and airflow but may not directly improve oxygenation. Providing high-flow oxygen can be harmful in COPD patients by removing their hypoxic drive to breathe. Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position can help with lung expansion but may not be as effective in improving oxygenation as pursed-lip breathing.
RN exams gastrointestinal practice questions, set 18 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
No. Nursier is independent practice. Register through the official path named on the RN exams exam guide.
The first five questions already include the rationale. Start full practice to unlock the remaining keys, missed-question review, and the rest of the bank.
Keep going past these 15 questions
Missed-question review, longer banks, and the rest of 20,000+ nursing practice questions open when you start studying.
