You pick airway, oxygen, and breathing actions in the order a nurse actually moves. Five of the 15 questions include the correct answer and rationale. The other ten keep answers in the study hub. Continue with the LPN exams exam guide or more LPN exams practice questions.
Five respiratory questions with answers
Cover the key. Write the first action. Then open the rationale and name why the other choices fail.
Question 1
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client who has recently been diagnosed with hypertension. Which result is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
A. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
B. Serum hemoglobin of 14.7 g/dL
C. Blood urea nitrogen 5
D. Serum creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — Serum creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL
The correct answer is D: Serum creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is a common complication of hypertension. Communicating this result to the healthcare provider is crucial as it may indicate renal damage and the need for further evaluation and intervention.
A: Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L is within the normal range and not directly related to hypertension.
B: Serum hemoglobin of 14.7 g/dL is also within the normal range and not a priority in this scenario.
C: Blood urea nitrogen of 5 is within the normal range and not as concerning as an elevated creatinine level in the context of hypertension.
In summary, the elevated serum creatinine level is most important to communicate as it suggests potential renal damage, which is a serious complication of hypertension.
Question 2
Chloride shift occurs from the plasma to the RBC and is meant for
A. Formation of Hemoglobinic acid
B. Formation of Bicarbonates
C. To keep electrostatic neutrality of RBC membrane
D. To transport CO2
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — To keep electrostatic neutrality of RBC membrane
The correct answer is C: To keep electrostatic neutrality of RBC membrane. Chloride shift helps maintain the balance of charges inside and outside red blood cells (RBCs) to prevent excessive positive or negative charges, ensuring the electrostatic neutrality of the RBC membrane. This process involves the exchange of chloride ions between the plasma and RBCs, with chloride moving into the RBCs to balance the outflow of bicarbonate ions during the transport of CO2. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary function of chloride shift, which is to maintain the electrostatic neutrality of the RBC membrane. Hemoglobinic acid formation, bicarbonate formation, and CO2 transport are secondary outcomes of the chloride shift process, but the main purpose is to regulate the charge balance within the RBCs.
Question 3
The nurse is caring for a patient immediately postoperative after a left pneumonectomy. How should the nurse position the patient?
A. In high Fowler position
B. In semi-Fowler position
C. In a right side-lying position
D. In a left side-lying position
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: D — In a left side-lying position
Step-by-step rationale for why choice D is correct:
1. Post-pneumonectomy, positioning the patient on the left side allows the remaining lung to expand fully.
2. This position promotes better ventilation and perfusion, aiding in oxygenation.
3. Placing the patient on the left side also helps prevent pressure on the surgical site.
4. The left side-lying position also facilitates drainage and prevents pooling of secretions in the surgical area.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A. High Fowler position may cause increased pressure on the surgical site and impede lung expansion.
B. Semi-Fowler position may not optimize lung expansion and could lead to decreased oxygenation.
C. Right side-lying position is not ideal as it does not facilitate full expansion of the remaining lung and may cause pooling of secretions.
Question 4
Which of the following statements regarding surfactants is incorrect?
A. Responsible for hysteresis
B. Increases pulmonary resistance
C. Commonly deficient in term-neonates
D. Prevents the occurrence of pulmonary edema
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: C — Commonly deficient in term-neonates
Surfactant reduces alveolar surface tension, causing hysteresis different inflation vs. deflation pressures in lung P-V curves due to tension dynamics, a true property. It lowers pulmonary resistance by easing expansion, not increasing it false but not queried. Surfactant deficiency is common in preterm neonates (<37 weeks), causing RDS, but in term neonates (≥37 weeks), production is typically mature, making commonly deficient in term-neonates' incorrect RDS is rare at term barring defects. Surfactant indirectly prevents pulmonary edema by stabilizing alveoli, reducing fluid transudation pressure, though not its primary role true enough. The term-neonate error misaligns with developmental physiology, where surfactant sufficiency is expected, distinguishing it as the incorrect statement amid surfactant's established functions.
Question 5
Which of the following is not correct regarding exhalation (expiration)?
A. Expiration is typically a passive process
B. Expiration can be active
C. The elastic properties of the lung tissue help it to expel deoxygenated air outside during exhalation
D. In COPD, patients face problems mainly during expiration
Show answer and rationale
Correct answer: B — Expiration can be active
Expiration is passive at rest, driven by lung elastic recoil and chest wall relaxation, expelling air true. It can be active (e.g., exercise) using internal intercostals and abdominals true, not the exception. Lung elasticity expels CO2-rich air by recoiling inward true. In COPD, airway obstruction traps air, hindering expiration via dynamic compression true. Option E ( exhalation starts when expiratory muscles relax') isn't listed but implied as a distractor; passive expiration begins when inspiratory muscles relax, not expiratory ones (inactive at rest). Active expiration involves contraction, not relaxation. Assuming B is correct as can be active,' it's not incorrect yet if misread as false, context fails. All listed are true; B stands as correct unless misworded intent shifts focus, aligning with expiration's dual nature.
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Question 6
With the assistance of a sign language interpreter, the clinic nurse is interviewing a deaf client to complete the flu risk health history. The client is coughing and febrile. Which questions are necessary to assess for flu risk? (Select all that apply.)
A. What is the client's history of influenza vaccinations?
B. How long has the client been deaf?
C. How long has the client had flu symptoms?
D. What is the client's known exposure to the flu virus?
Correct answer:
To assess flu risk in a coughing, febrile deaf client, the nurse needs the vaccination history, symptom duration, and exposure details. Vaccination history reveals immunity status unvaccinated clients face higher risk, critical with current symptoms. Symptom duration indicates illness progression, helping gauge severity or complications. Known exposure pinpoints infection likelihood, especially in flu season. Deafness duration is irrelevant it's a communication factor, not a flu risk. Causative factors of deafness don't affect flu susceptibility. The nurse, via the interpreter, focuses on these questions to build a risk profile, tailoring care (e.g., antivirals) to the client's presentation and history, ensuring effective management despite communication barriers, aligning with comprehensive health assessment principles.
With the assistance of a sign language interpreter, the clinic nurse is interviewing a deaf client to complete the flu risk health history. The client is coughing and febrile. Which questions are necessary to assess for flu risk? (Select all that apply.)
A. What is the client's history of influenza vaccinations?
B. How long has the client been deaf?
C. How long has the client had flu symptoms?
D. What is the client's known exposure to the flu virus?
Correct answer:
To assess flu risk in a coughing, febrile deaf client, the nurse needs the vaccination history, symptom duration, and exposure details. Vaccination history reveals immunity status unvaccinated clients face higher risk, critical with current symptoms. Symptom duration indicates illness progression, helping gauge severity or complications. Known exposure pinpoints infection likelihood, especially in flu season. Deafness duration is irrelevant it's a communication factor, not a flu risk. Causative factors of deafness don't affect flu susceptibility. The nurse, via the interpreter, focuses on these questions to build a risk profile, tailoring care (e.g., antivirals) to the client's presentation and history, ensuring effective management despite communication barriers, aligning with comprehensive health assessment principles.
Regarding lung compliance, all of the following are correct EXCEPT?
A. Expressed as unit change in volume per unit change in pressure
B. Maximal during quiet breathing
C. The more surface tension, the more the compliance
D. Decreases in fibrosis
Correct answer:
Lung compliance (C = ÃŽâ€V / ÃŽâ€P) measures volume change per pressure unit, correctly defined. It's not maximal during quiet breathing (VT ~500 ml) compliance peaks at moderate volumes, declining near TLC due to stiffness, making that false but not the exception here. The statement more surface tension, more compliance' is incorrect high tension (e.g., no surfactant) reduces compliance by stiffening alveoli, per Laplace's law (P = 2T/r), as in RDS, while low tension increases it. Fibrosis decreases compliance via collagen stiffening true. Emphysema (not listed) raises compliance by elasticity loss. The surface tension error contradicts physiology compliance falls with rising tension, making it the exception, as surfactant's role is to enhance compliance by reducing tension, critical for understanding lung mechanics.
At the end of normal quiet expiration, just before the start of inspiration, the lungs are said to be in:
A. RV
B. ERV
C. FRC
D. IRV
Correct answer:
Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the lung volume after a normal, quiet expiration (~2.5-3 L), where elastic recoil of the lungs (inward) balances the chest wall (outward), with no muscle activity. Residual volume (RV, ~1-1.5 L) is after maximal expiration, not quiet breathing. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV, ~1-1.5 L) is the extra air forcibly exhaled beyond normal expiration, not the resting state. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV, ~2-3 L) is additional air inhaled beyond a normal breath, relevant to inspiration. FRC is the resting point before inspiration, maintaining alveolar patency and gas exchange efficiency, with intra-alveolar pressure equaling atmospheric (~760 mmHg). It's distinct from volumes tied to maximal efforts or active phases, reflecting the passive equilibrium critical for respiratory homeostasis.
At the end of normal quiet expiration, just before the start of inspiration, the lungs are said to be in:
A. RV
B. ERV
C. FRC
D. IRV
Correct answer:
Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the lung volume after a normal, quiet expiration (~2.5-3 L), where elastic recoil of the lungs (inward) balances the chest wall (outward), with no muscle activity. Residual volume (RV, ~1-1.5 L) is after maximal expiration, not quiet breathing. Expiratory reserve volume (ERV, ~1-1.5 L) is the extra air forcibly exhaled beyond normal expiration, not the resting state. Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV, ~2-3 L) is additional air inhaled beyond a normal breath, relevant to inspiration. FRC is the resting point before inspiration, maintaining alveolar patency and gas exchange efficiency, with intra-alveolar pressure equaling atmospheric (~760 mmHg). It's distinct from volumes tied to maximal efforts or active phases, reflecting the passive equilibrium critical for respiratory homeostasis.
The primary force responsible for the movement of air into the lungs during inspiration?
A. Atm-pressure
B. Muscular spasm
C. Reduced surface tension of alveoli
D. Pressure difference between atmospheric-intrapulmonary
Correct answer:
Inspiration relies on Boyle's law: expanding the thorax lowers intrapulmonary pressure (e.g., 760 to 758 mmHg) below atmospheric, creating a pressure difference driving air in. Diaphragm and intercostal contraction generate this ~1-2 mmHg gradient for tidal breathing (~500 ml). Atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg) is static, not a force its difference with intrapulmonary pressure matters. Muscular spasm implies involuntary action, unlike controlled respiratory muscle contraction. Reduced surface tension (via surfactant) eases expansion but isn't the force pressure difference is. Muscle relaxation drives expiration, not inspiration. This gradient, directly linking mechanics to airflow, is the primary force, quantifiable and fundamental to ventilation, distinguishing it from secondary factors like surfactant or muscle state.
The primary force responsible for the movement of air into the lungs during inspiration?
A. Atm-pressure
B. Muscular spasm
C. Reduced surface tension of alveoli
D. Pressure difference between atmospheric-intrapulmonary
Correct answer:
Inspiration relies on Boyle's law: expanding the thorax lowers intrapulmonary pressure (e.g., 760 to 758 mmHg) below atmospheric, creating a pressure difference driving air in. Diaphragm and intercostal contraction generate this ~1-2 mmHg gradient for tidal breathing (~500 ml). Atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg) is static, not a force its difference with intrapulmonary pressure matters. Muscular spasm implies involuntary action, unlike controlled respiratory muscle contraction. Reduced surface tension (via surfactant) eases expansion but isn't the force pressure difference is. Muscle relaxation drives expiration, not inspiration. This gradient, directly linking mechanics to airflow, is the primary force, quantifiable and fundamental to ventilation, distinguishing it from secondary factors like surfactant or muscle state.
A nurse cares for a client who had a bronchoscopy 2 hours ago. The client asks for a drink of water. What action would the nurse take next?
A. Call the primary health care provider and request food and water for the client.
B. Provide the client with ice chips instead of a drink of water.
C. Assess the client's gag reflex before giving any food or water.
D. Let the client have a small sip to see whether he or she can swallow.
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Assess the client's gag reflex before giving any food or water. After a bronchoscopy, the client's gag reflex may be compromised, increasing the risk of aspiration. Assessing the gag reflex is crucial to ensure the client can safely swallow without the risk of choking or aspirating. This step is essential before providing any food or water to prevent potential complications.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Calling the primary health care provider for food and water is unnecessary as the nurse can make this decision based on assessment.
B: Providing ice chips instead of water does not address the need for assessing the gag reflex before giving any form of intake.
D: Letting the client have a small sip without assessing the gag reflex first can pose a risk of aspiration if the reflex is impaired.
In Carbon monoxide poisoning, Hemoglobin shows about 250 times greater affinity with CO2 than oxygen and Carbonmonoxyheamoglobin (COHb). This causes Oxygen starvation and Asphyxia. The immediate remedy is
A. Giving pure Oxygen
B. Dialysis
C. Giving pure Oxygen Carbon dioxide mixture
D. Transfusing blood
Correct answer:
The correct answer is C: Giving pure Oxygen Carbon dioxide mixture. When hemoglobin binds with carbon monoxide (CO) instead of oxygen, it forms carboxyhemoglobin (COHb), which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. Administering pure oxygen helps to displace CO from hemoglobin, but giving pure oxygen alone may not be sufficient in severe cases. By providing a mixture of pure oxygen and carbon dioxide, the increased carbon dioxide levels can help stimulate breathing and aid in the elimination of CO from the body more rapidly. This approach can help restore oxygen levels in the blood more effectively compared to just giving pure oxygen. Dialysis and blood transfusion are not immediate remedies for carbon monoxide poisoning and are not as directly targeted at addressing the underlying issue of COHb formation.
During one circuit of blood from lungs to the tissue and back through the circulatory system the percentage of haemoglobin giving the oxygen is
A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Correct answer:
The correct answer is B (25%). In the lungs, oxygen binds to hemoglobin to form oxyhemoglobin. This increases the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin to around 97-98%. As blood travels to the tissues, oxygen is released from hemoglobin to be used by the cells. By the time blood returns to the lungs, only about 25% of the hemoglobin is still carrying oxygen. This is known as the oxygen saturation curve. Choice A (50%) is incorrect because the percentage of hemoglobin carrying oxygen drops significantly as blood travels to the tissues. Choice C (75%) is incorrect because by the time blood returns to the lungs, more than 25% of the hemoglobin has already released its oxygen. Choice D (100%) is incorrect because not all hemoglobin molecules carry oxygen at the same time; it depends on the oxygen tension in the environment.
LPN exams respiratory practice questions, set 15 for nursing students in the United States. Fifteen items. Five include answers and rationales in American English.
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